32023R0989

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Document 32023R0989

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Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/989 of 22 May 2023 amending Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 on the continuing airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical products, parts and appliances, and on the approval of organisations and personnel involved in these tasks, and correcting that Regulation

C/2023/3206

OJ L 135, 23.5.2023, p. 53–110 (BG, ES, CS, DA, DE, ET, EL, EN, FR, GA, HR, IT, LV, LT, HU, MT, NL, PL, PT, RO, SK, SL, FI, SV)

Legal status of the document In force

ELI: http://data.europa.eu/eli/reg_impl/2023/989/oj

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Official Journal

23.5.2023

Official Journal of the European Union

L 135/53

COMMISSION IMPLEMENTING REGULATION (EU) 2023/989

of 22 May 2023

amending Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 on the continuing airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical products, parts and appliances, and on the approval of organisations and personnel involved in these tasks, and correcting that Regulation

THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION,

Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union,

Having regard to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 July 2018 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Union Aviation Safety Agency, and amending Regulations (EC) No 2111/2005, (EC) No 1008/2008, (EU) No 996/2010, (EU) No 376/2014 and Directives 2014/30/EU and 2014/53/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council, and repealing Regulations (EC) No 552/2004 and (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council and Council Regulation (EEC) No 3922/91 (1), and in particular Article 17(1) thereof,

Whereas:

(1)	Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 (2) lays down the requirements for the continuing airworthiness of aircraft, including the qualifications and licences of the personnel responsible for the release to service of products after maintenance.

(2)

The term ‘complex motor-powered aircraft’ had been defined in Article 3, point (j), of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council (3), and was repealed by Regulation (EU) 2018/1139. In accordance with Article 140(2), point (b), of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 is to be adapted to Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 as regards the definition of that term.

(3)	In order to enhance the efficiency of the maintenance licencing and training system, it is necessary to introduce changes to the requirements on maintenance licences and training organisations set out in Annex III (Part-66) and Annex IV (Part-147) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014.

(4)

In particular, it is necessary to facilitate the type rating endorsement of aircraft on the maintenance licenses when there are no organisations approved in accordance with Annex IV to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 offering type training on that aircraft, maintaining the same level of safety and a level playing field. It is also necessary to update the basic training syllabus of the certifying staff involved in the aircraft maintenance, enhance the efficiency of the ‘on-the-job training’ required for the first type rating endorsement in the maintenance licence category and to introduce new training methods and teaching technologies and other improvements as part of the regular update of the rules in that Annex.

(5)	Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 should therefore be amended accordingly.

(6)	The amendments are based on Opinion No 07/2022 (4) of the European Union Aviation Safety Agency in accordance with Article 75(2), point (b), and Article 76(1) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139.

(7)	A sufficient transition period should be provided for maintenance training organisations and licencing authorities to ensure their compliance with the new rules and procedures introduced by this Regulation.

(8)	Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/1360 (5) amended Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 to include references to data and information used for continuing airworthiness established in accordance with the new Annex Ib to Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 (6).

(9)

Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/1360 inadvertently deleted point (3) of point M.A.302(d) of Annex I (Part-M) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 and points (3) to (9) of point ML.A.302(c) of Annex Vb (Part-ML) to that Regulation, which should have been retained. Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/1360 also inadvertently added another point (e) to point M.A.502 of Annex I (Part-M) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 instead of replacing it.

(10)	Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 should therefore be corrected accordingly.

(11)	The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the committee established by Article 127 of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139,

HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION:

Article 1

Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 is amended as follows:

(1)

Article 2 is amended as follows:

(a)

point (t) is replaced by the following:

‘(t)	‘management systems harmonisation’ means the coordinated process by which the management systems of two or more organisations interact and share information and methods to reach common or consistent safety and compliance monitoring objectives;’;

(b)

the following point (u) is added:

‘(u)

‘complex motor-powered aircraft’ means:

(i)

an aeroplane:

—	with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg, or

—	certificated for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nineteen, or

—	certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots, or

—	equipped with (a) turbojet engine(s) or more than one turboprop engine, or

(ii)

a helicopter certificated:

—	for a maximum take-off mass exceeding 3 175 kg, or

—	for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nine, or

—	for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots, or

(iii)

a tilt rotor aircraft;’;

(2)

Article 6 is amended as follows:

(a)	the title is replaced by the following: ‘Requirements applicable to training organisations and competent authorities issuing licenses’;

(b)

the following paragraphs 4, 5 and 6 are added:

‘4. Any basic training course, or part thereof, that commenced before 12 June 2024 shall be finished, including any related examination, before 12 June 2026. The corresponding certificates of recognition shall also be issued before 12 June 2026.

5. Certificates of recognition referred in paragraph 4 shall be issued in accordance with this Regulation in its version applicable before 12 June 2024.

6. For the purpose of the issue or change of an aircraft maintenance licence in accordance with Annex III (Part-66) after 12 June 2024, the competent authority shall accept an applicant’s basic knowledge examination status corresponding to this Regulation in its version applicable before 12 June 2024, as meeting the requirements of this Regulation in its version applicable from 12 June 2024’;

(3)	Annex III (Part-66) is amended in accordance with Annex I to this Regulation;

(4)	Annex IV (Part-147) is amended in accordance with Annex II to this Regulation.

Article 2

Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 is corrected as follows:

(1)	Annex I (Part-M) is corrected in accordance with Annex III to this Regulation;

(2)	Annex Vb (Part-ML) is corrected in accordance with Annex IV to this Regulation.

Article 3

This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in the Official Journal of the European Union.

It shall apply from 12 June 2024.

However, Article 1(1) and Article 2 shall apply from 12 June 2023.

This Regulation shall be binding in its entirety and directly applicable in all Member States.

Done at Brussels, 22 May 2023.

For the Commission

The President

Ursula VON DER LEYEN

(1) OJ L 212, 22.8.2018, p. 1.

(2) Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 of 26 November 2014 on the continuing airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical products, parts and appliances, and on the approval of organisations and personnel involved in these tasks (OJ L 362, 17.12.2014, p. 1).

(3) Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 February 2008 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Aviation Safety Agency, and repealing Council Directive 91/670/EEC, Regulation (EC) No 1592/2002 and Directive 2004/36/EC (OJ L 79, 19.3.2008, p. 1).

(4) https://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/opinions

(5) Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2022/1360 of 28 July 2022 amending Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 as regards the implementation of more proportionate requirements for aircraft used for sport and recreational aviation (OJ L 205, 5.8.2022, p. 115).

(6) Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 of 3 August 2012 laying down implementing rules for the airworthiness and environmental certification of aircraft and related products, parts and appliances, as well as for the certification of design and production organisations (OJ L 224, 21.8.2012, p. 1).

ANNEX I

ANNEX III (Part-66) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 is amended as follows:

(1)

the table of contents is amended as follows:

(a)

the following point 66.B.2 is inserted after point 66.B.1:

‘66.B.2

Means of compliance’;

(b)

the following point 66.B.135 is inserted after point 66.B.130:

‘66.B.135

Procedure for the approval of multimedia-based training (MBT) courses’;

(c)	the title of Appendix III is replaced by the following: ‘Appendix III Aircraft type training and type evaluation standard – on-the-job training (OJT)’;

(d)	the title of Appendix IV is replaced by the following: ‘Appendix IV Experience and basic knowledge modules or partial modules required for extending a Part-66 aircraft maintenance licence’;

(e)	the following title of Appendix IX is added: ‘Appendix IX Assessment method for the multimedia-based training (MBT)’;

(2)

point 66.A.5 is amended as follows:

(a)

in point (1), the first paragraph is replaced by the following:

‘Group 1: complex motor-powered aircraft; multi-engine helicopters; other than piston-engine aeroplanes, with maximum certified operating altitude exceeding FL290; aircraft equipped with fly-by-wire systems; gas airships other than ELA2.’;

(b)

in point (2)(i), the second indent is replaced by the following:

‘—	those turbine-engine aeroplanes classified by the Agency in this subgroup because of their lower complexity.’;

(3)

in point 66.A.10, point (e) is replaced by the following:

‘(e)

Where the applicant for change of the basic categories qualifies for such change via the procedure referred to in point 66.B.105 in a Member State other than the Member State which issued the license, the maintenance organisation approved in accordance with Annex II (Part-145) or Annex Vd (Part-CAO) shall send the aircraft maintenance licence together with the EASA Form 19 to the competent authority referred to in point 66.1 for stamp and signature of the change or reissue of the licence, as appropriate.’;

(4)	in point 66.A.20(a)(7), the following paragraph is added: ‘A Category C aircraft maintenance licence issued with respect to complex motor-powered aircraft shall include the privileges of category C aircraft maintenance licence also with respect to other than complex motor-powered aircraft.’;

(5)

point 66.A.25 is replaced by the following:

‘66.A.25

Basic knowledge requirements

(a)	The applicant for an aircraft maintenance licence shall demonstrate by examination a level of knowledge of the related subject modules in accordance with Appendix I (applicable to category A, B1, B2, B2L, B3 and C licences) or Appendix VII (applicable to category L licences).

(b)

The basic knowledge examinations shall comply with the standard set out in Appendix II (applicable to category A, B1, B2, B2L, B3 and C licences) or Appendix VIII (applicable to category L licences) to this Annex and shall be conducted by either of the following:

(1)	a training organisation approved in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147);

(2)	the competent authority;

(3)	for category L licences, another organisation as agreed by the competent authority.

(c)

The basic knowledge examinations shall have been passed within 10 years prior to the application for an aircraft maintenance licence or the addition of a category or subcategory to such a licence. If the basic knowledge examinations have not been passed within that 10-year period, credits for basic knowledge examinations may be alternatively obtained by the applicant in accordance with point (d).

The 10 years’ validity requirement applies to each individual module examination, except for those module examinations which were already passed as part of another licence category and the licence has already been issued.

(d)

The applicant may apply to the competent authority for full or partial credits for the basic knowledge requirements for:

(1)	basic knowledge examinations which were passed more than 10 years before the application for an aircraft maintenance licence was submitted (see point (c));

(2)

any other national technical training and examination considered by the competent authority as equivalent to the corresponding basic knowledge requirements of this Annex.

The applicant shall provide evidence of the granted credits by referring to an examination credit report approved by the competent authority in accordance with Section B, Subpart E, of this Annex III (Part-66).

(e)

A basic training course without Modules 1 and 2 of Appendix I to this Annex is considered a full basic training course approved in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147) only when knowledge of those Modules is subsequently demonstrated by the applicant by examination and is credited by the competent authority.

(f)

The holder of an aircraft maintenance licence applying for the addition of a different category or subcategory shall complement by examination the level of knowledge that is appropriate to the related subject modules in accordance with Appendix I (for category A, B1, B2, B2L, B3 and C licences) or Appendix VII (for category L licences).

Appendix IV details the modules of Appendix I (for category B1, B2, B2L, B3 and C licences) or Appendix VII (for category L licences) required for the addition of a new category or subcategory to an existing licence issued in accordance with this AnnexA.’;

(6)

point 66.A.30 is amended as follows:

(a)	in point (a)(2b), the second and third paragraphs are deleted;

(b)

points (a)(3), (4) and (5) are replaced by the following:

‘3.

for category C with respect to complex motor-powered aircraft (CMPA):

(i)

3 years of experience in exercising category B1.1, B1.3 or B2 privileges as support staff, or both support staff and certifying staff, in accordance with point 145.A.35 of Annex II (Part-145), at a maintenance organisation working on CMPA, including 12 months of experience as base maintenance support staff; or

(ii)

5 years of experience in exercising category B1.2, B1.4 or L5 privileges as support staff, or both support staff and certifying staff, in accordance with point 145.A.35 of Annex II (Part-145), at a maintenance organisation working on CMPA, including 12 months of experience as base maintenance support staff; or

(iii)

for applicants holding an academic degree, 3 years of experience in working at an aircraft maintenance environment, on a representative selection of tasks that are directly associated with aircraft maintenance, including 6 months of participation in the performance of base maintenance tasks in operating CMPA;

(iv)

to extend the endorsed category C with respect to other than CMPA to CMPA:

(a)

2 years of experience in exercising category B1.1, B1.2, B1.3, B1.4, B2 or L5 privileges as support staff, or both support staff and certifying staff, in accordance with point 145.A.35 of Annex II (Part-145), at a maintenance organisation in operating CMPA, including 6 months of experience as base maintenance support staff; or

(b)

when holding a category C licence based on an academic degree, 2 years of experience in working at an aircraft maintenance environment on a representative selection of tasks that are directly associated with aircraft maintenance, including 3 months of participation in the performance of base maintenance tasks in operating CMPA;

for category C with respect to other than CMPA:

(i)

3 years of experience in exercising category B1, B2, B2L, B3 or L privileges as support staff, or both support staff and certifying staff, in accordance with point 145.A.35 of Annex II (Part-145), at a maintenance organisation in operating other than CMPA, including 6 months of experience as base maintenance support staff; or

(ii)

for holders of an academic degree, 3 years of experience in working at an aircraft maintenance environment, on a representative selection of tasks that are directly associated with aircraft maintenance, including 6 months of participation in the performance of base maintenance tasks in operating other than CMPA;

5.	the academic degree shall be in a relevant technical discipline, issued by a university or any other higher educational institution recognised by the competent authority.’;

(c)

point (e) is replaced by the following:

‘(e)

Notwithstanding point (a), experience in aircraft maintenance gained in organisations not approved in accordance with Annexes II (Part-145) or Vd (Part-CAO) may be recognised when such maintenance is equivalent to that required by this Annex as established by the competent authority.

However, demonstration of additional experience in organisations approved in accordance with Annexes II or Vd or under the supervision of independent certifying staff, shall be required.’;

(7)

in point 66.A.40, point (b) is replaced by the following:

‘(b)

The holder of an aircraft maintenance licence shall complete the relevant parts of EASA Form 19 (see Appendix V) and submit it with the holder’s copy of the licence to the competent authority that issued the original aircraft maintenance licence, unless the holder works in a maintenance organisation approved in accordance with Annex II (Part-145) or Annex Vd (Part-CAO) that has a procedure in its exposition whereby such organisation may submit the necessary documentation on behalf of the aircraft maintenance licence holder.’;

(8)

point 66.A.45(d) is amended as follows:

(a)

in the first paragraph, the first indent is replaced by the following:

‘—	satisfactory completion of the relevant category B1, B2 or C aircraft type evaluation in accordance with Appendix III to this Annex (Part-66);’;

(b)	the second paragraph is replaced by the following: ‘In the case of a category C rating, for a person qualified through the academic route as referred to in point (a)(5) of point 66.A.30, the first relevant aircraft type evaluation shall be at the category B1 or B2 level.’;

(9)	in point 66.A.45(h)(ii)(3), the third paragraph is deleted;

(10)

the following point 66.B.2 is inserted:

‘66.B.2

Means of compliance

(a)	The Agency shall develop acceptable means of compliance (“AMC”) that may be used to establish compliance with Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 and its delegated and implementing acts.

(b)	Alternative means of compliance may be used to establish compliance with this Regulation.

(c)	Competent authorities shall inform the Agency of any alternative means of compliance used by persons under their oversight or by themselves for establishing compliance with this Regulation.’;

(11)

point 66.B.105 is amended as follows:

(a)

the title is replaced by the following:

‘66.B.105

Procedure for the issue of an aircraft maintenance licence via a maintenance organisation approved in accordance with Annex II (Part-145) or Annex Vd (Part-CAO)’;

(b)

point (a) is replaced by the following:

‘(a)

A maintenance organisation approved in accordance with Annex II (Part-145) or Annex Vd (Part-CAO), when authorised to carry out this activity by the competent authority, may (i) prepare the aircraft maintenance licence on behalf of the competent authority or (ii) make recommendations to the competent authority regarding the application from an individual for a aircraft maintenance licence so that the competent authority may prepare and issue such licence.’;

(12)

in point 66.B.110, point (d) is replaced by the following:

‘(d)	The experience and basic knowledge modules or partial modules required for adding a new licence category or subcategory to an existing licence issued in accordance with this Annex are outlined in the tables of Appendix IV.’;

(13)

in point 66.B.130, the following point (c) is added:

‘(c)	The Certificate of Recognition (CoR) (EASA Form 149b) of Appendix III to Annex IV (Part-147) shall be used for the recognition of completion of either the theoretical elements, the practical elements or both the theoretical and practical elements of the type rating training course.’;

(14)

the following point 66.B.135 is added:

‘66.B.135

Procedure for the approval of multimedia-based training (MBT) courses

The competent authority, whenever it approves courses, including multimedia-based training (MBT) courses, which are delivered in a physical environment or virtual environment or both, shall verify that the aircraft basic training and the aircraft type training comply with Appendix I and Appendix III respectively.

The approval procedure shall include the principles and criteria of Appendix IX.’;

(15)

point 66.B.200 is amended as follows:

(a)

points (c) and (d) are replaced by the following:

‘(c)	Basic examinations shall follow the standard specified in Appendices I and II or in Appendices VII and VIII as applicable. The Certificate of Recognition (CoR) (EASA Form 148b) of Appendix III to Annex IV (Part-147) shall be used to attest completion of basic examinations.

(d)	Type training examinations and type evaluations shall follow the standard specified in Appendix III. The Certificate of Recognition (CoR) (EASA Form 149b) of Appendix III to Annex IV (Part-147) shall be used to attest completion of aircraft type training or type evaluations.’;

(b)

point (g) is replaced by the following:

‘(g)	Apart from specific documentation needed for type evaluations, only the examination documents may be available to the candidate during the evaluation.’;

(16)	in Subpart E, the first sentence is replaced by the following: ‘This Subpart provides the procedures for granting examination credits referred to in point 66.A.25(d).’;

(17)

in point 66.B.400, the following point (d) is added:

‘(d)	When an applicant refers to a credit report approved by another competent authority, the licencing authority shall consider such credit report and seek advice from the other authority for the use of the credit report.’;

(18)	in point 66.B.405(a), the second paragraph is replaced by the following: ‘This comparison shall state whether compliance has been demonstrated and shall contain the justifications for each statement and the possible conditions or additional considerations, or both.’;

(19)

Appendix I is amended as follows:

(a)

point 2 is replaced by the following:

‘2.

Modularisation

Qualification on basic subjects for each aircraft maintenance licence category or subcategory shall be in accordance with the following matrix, where applicable subjects are indicated by an ‘X’, while ‘n/a’ means that the subject module is neither applicable nor required.

Subject module

B1.1

B1.2

B1.3

B1.4

B2L

Turbine engine

Piston engine

Turbine engine

Piston engine

Piston-engine non-pressurised aeroplanes

MTOM ≤ 2 t

1.	MATHEMATICS

PHYSICS

3.	ELECTRICAL FUNDAMENTALS

4.	ELECTRONICS FUNDAMENTALS

(n/a for A1)

(n/a for A2)

(n/a for A3)

(n/a for A4)

5.	DIGITAL TECHNIQUES/ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS

6.	MATERIALS AND HARDWARE

7.	MAINTENANCE PRACTICES

8.	BASIC AERODYNAMICS

9.	HUMAN FACTORS

10.	AVIATION LEGISLATION

11.	AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

n/a

11, 15 & 17

as B1.1

11, 16 & 17

as B1.2

12 & 15

as B1.3

12 & 16

as B1.4

13 & 14

as B2

12.	HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

n/a

13.	AIRCRAFT AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

n/a

14.	PROPULSION

n/a

15.	GAS TURBINE ENGINES

n/a

16.	PISTON ENGINE

n/a

17.

PROPELLER

n/a

MODULE 1. MATHEMATICS

LEVEL

B2L

1.1	Arithmetic

1.2

Algebra

(a)	Simple algebraic expressions;

(b)	Equations.

—

1.3

Geometry

(a)	Simple geometrical constructions;

—

(b)	Graphical representation;

(c)	Trigonometry.

—

MODULE 2. PHYSICS

LEVEL

B2L

2.1

Matter

2.2

Mechanics

2.2.1

Statics

2.2.2

Kinetics

2.2.3

Dynamics

(a)	Mass, force and energy;

(b)	Momentum and conservation of momentum.

2.2.4

Fluid dynamics

(a)	Gravity and density;

(b)	Viscosity; compressibility on fluids; static, dynamic, and total pressure.

2.3	Thermodynamics

(a)	Temperature;

(b)

Heat.

2.4	Optics (light)

—

2.5	Wave motion and sound

—

MODULE 3. ELECTRICAL FUNDAMENTALS

LEVEL

B2L

3.1	Electron theory

3.2	Static electricity and conduction

3.3	Electrical terminology

3.4	Generation of electricity

3.5	Sources of DC electricity

3.6	DC circuits

3.7	Resistance/resistor

(a)	Resistance;

—

(b)	Resistors.

—

3.8

Power

—

3.9	Capacitance/capacitor

—

3.10

Magnetism

(a)	Theory of magnetism;

—

(b)	Magnetomotive force.

—

3.11	Inductance/inductor

—

3.12	DC motor/generator theory

—

3.13

AC theory

3.14	Resistive (R), capacitive (C) and inductive (L) circuits

—

3.15	Transformers

—

3.16

Filters

—

3.17	AC generators

—

3.18

AC motors

—

MODULE 4. ELECTRONICS FUNDAMENTALS

LEVEL

B2L

4.1	Semiconductors

4.1.1

Diodes

(a)	Description and characteristics;

—

(b)	Operation and function.

—

4.1.2

Transistors

(a)	Description and characteristics;

—

(b)	Construction and operation.

—

4.1.3

Integrated circuits

(a)	Basic description and operation;

—

(b)	Description and operation.

—

4.2	Printed circuit boards

—

4.3	Servomechanisms

(a)	Principles;

—

(b)	Construction, operation, and use.

—

MODULE 5. DIGITAL TECHNIQUES/ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS

LEVEL

B2L

5.1	Electronic instrument systems

5.2	Numbering systems

—

5.3	Data conversion

—

5.4	Data buses

—

5.5	Logic circuits

(a)	Identification and applications;

—

(b)	Interpretation of logic diagrams.

—

5.6	Basic computer structure

(a)	Computer terminology and technology;

(b)	Computer operation.

—

5.7	Microprocessors

—

5.8	Integrated circuits

—

5.9	Multiplexing

—

5.10	Fibre optics

—

5.11	Electronic displays

5.12	Electrostatic sensitive devices

5.13	Software management control

—

5.14	Electromagnetic environment

—

5.15	Typical electronic/digital aircraft systems

MODULE 6. MATERIALS AND HARDWARE

LEVEL

B2L

6.1	Aircraft materials – ferrous

(a)	Alloy steels used in aircraft;

(b)	Testing of ferrous materials;

—

(c)	Repair and inspection procedures.

—

6.2	Aircraft materials – non-ferrous

(a)	Characteristics;

(b)	Testing of non-ferrous materials;

—

(c)	Repair and inspection procedures.

—

6.3	Aircraft materials – composite and non-metallic

6.3.1

Composite and non-metallic other than wood and fabric

(a)	Characteristics;

(b)	Detection of defects;

—

(c)	Repairs and inspection procedures.

—

6.3.2

Wooden structures

—

6.3.3

Fabric covering

—

6.4

Corrosion

(a)	Chemical fundamentals;

(b)	Types of corrosion.

6.5

Fasteners

6.5.1

Screw threads

6.5.2

Bolts, studs, and screws

6.5.3

Locking devices

6.5.4

Aircraft rivets

6.6	Pipes and unions

(a)	Identification;

(b)	Standard unions.

6.7

Springs

—

6.8

Bearings

6.9	Transmissions

6.10	Control cables

6.11	Electrical cables and connectors

MODULE 7. MAINTENANCE PRACTICES

LEVEL

B2L

7.1	Safety precautions – aircraft and workshop

7.2	Workshop practices

7.3

Tools

7.4	(Reserved)

—

7.5	Engineering drawings, diagrams and standards

7.6	Fits and clearances

7.7	Electrical wiring interconnection system (EWIS)

7.8

Riveting

—

7.9	Pipes and hoses

—

7.10

Springs

—

7.11

Bearings

—

7.12	Transmissions

—

7.13	Control cables

—

7.14	Material handling

7.14.1

Sheet metal

—

7.14.2

Composite and non-metallic

—

7.14.3

Additive manufacturing

7.15	(Reserved)

—

7.16	Aircraft weight and balance

(a)	Centre-of-gravity calculation;

—

(b)	Aircraft weighing.

—

7.17	Aircraft handling and storage

7.18	Disassembly, inspection, repair and assembly techniques

(a)	Types of defects and visual inspection techniques;

(b)	General repair methods – structural repair manual;

—

(c)	Non-destructive inspection techniques;

—

(d)	Disassembly and reassembly techniques;

(e)	Troubleshooting techniques.

—

7.19	Abnormal events

(a)	Inspections following lightning strikes and HIRF penetration;

(b)	Inspections following abnormal events such as heavy landings and flight through turbulence.

—

7.20	Maintenance procedures

7.21	Documentation & communication

MODULE 8. BASIC AERODYNAMICS

LEVEL

B2L

8.1	Physics of the atmosphere

International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), application to aerodynamics

8.2	Aerodynamics

8.3	Theory of flight

8.4	High-speed airflow

8.5	Flight stability and dynamics

MODULE 9. HUMAN FACTORS

LEVEL

ALL

9.1

General

9.2	Human performance and limitations

9.3	Social psychology

9.4	Factors that affect performance

9.5	Physical environment

9.6

Tasks

9.7	Communication

9.8	Human error

9.9	Safety management

9.10	The ‘Dirty Dozen’ and risk mitigation

MODULE 10. AVIATION LEGISLATION

LEVEL

B2L

10.1	Regulatory framework

10.2	Certifying staff – maintenance

10.3	Approved maintenance organisations

10.4	Independent certifying staff

—

10.5	Air operations

10.6	Certification of aircraft, parts, and appliances

10.7	Continuing airworthiness

10.8	Oversight principles in continuing airworthiness

10.9	Maintenance and certification beyond the current EU regulations (if not superseded by EU requirements)

10.10

Cybersecurity in aviation maintenance

MODULE 11. AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

LEVEL

B1.1

B1.2

11.1	Theory of flight

(a)	Aeroplane aerodynamics and flight controls;

(b)	Aeroplane, other aerodynamic devices.

11.2	Airframe structures (ATA 51)

(a)	General concepts;

(b)	Airworthiness requirements for structural strength;

(c)	Construction methods.

11.3	Airframe structures – aeroplanes

11.3.1

Fuselage, doors, windows ( ATA 52/53/56 )

(a)	Construction principles;

(b)	Airborne towing devices;

(c)

Doors.

11.3.2

Wings ( ATA 57 )

11.3.3

Stabilisers ( ATA 55 )

11.3.4

Flight control surfaces ( ATA 55/57 )

11.3.5

Nacelles/pylons ( ATA 54 )

11.4	Air conditioning and cabin pressurisation ( ATA 21 )

(a)	Pressurisation;

—

(b)	Air supply;

—

(c)	Air conditioning;

—

(d)	Safety and warning devices;

—

(e)	Heating and ventilation system.

—

11.5	Instruments/avionics systems

11.5.1

Instrument systems ( ATA 31 )

11.5.2

Avionics systems

Fundamentals of system layouts and operation of:

Autoflight (ATA 22);

Communications (ATA 23);

Navigation systems (ATA 34).

11.6	Electrical power ( ATA 24 )

11.7	Equipment and furnishings (ATA 25)

(a)	Emergency equipment;

(b)	Cabin and cargo layout.

—

11.8	Fire protection (ATA 26)

(a)	Fire and smoke detection system and fire-extinguishing systems;

—

(b)	Portable fire extinguisher.

11.9	Flight controls (ATA 27)

(a)	Primary and secondary flight controls;

(b)	Actuation and protection;

—

(c)	System operation;

—

(d)	Balancing and rigging.

11.10

Fuel systems (ATA 28, ATA 47)

(a)	Systems layout;

(b)	Fuel handling;

(c)	Indication and warnings;

(d)	Special systems;

—

(e)	Balancing.

—

11.11

Hydraulic power (ATA 29)

(a)	System description;

(b)	System operation (1);

(c)	System operation (2).

—

11.12

Ice and rain protection (ATA 30)

(a)	Principles;

(b)

De-icing;

(c)	Anti-icing;

—

(d)

Wipers;

(e)	Rain repellent systems

—

11.13

Landing gear (ATA 32)

(a)	Description;

(b)	System operation;

(c)	Air-ground sensing;

—

(d)	Tail protection.

11.14

Lights (ATA 33)

11.15

Oxygen (ATA 35)

11.16

Pneumatic/vacuum (ATA 36)

(a)

Systems;

(b)

Pumps.

11.17

Water/waste (ATA 38)

(a)

Systems;

(b)	Corrosion.

11.18

On-board maintenance systems (ATA 45)

—

11.19

Integrated modular avionics (ATA 42)

(a)	Overall system description and theory;

—

(b)	Typical system layouts.

—

11.20

Cabin systems (ATA 44)

—

11.21

Information systems (ATA 46)

—

MODULE 12. HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

LEVEL

B1.3

B1.4

12.1	Theory of flight – rotary wing aerodynamics

12.2	Flight control systems (ATA 67)

12.3	Blade tracking and vibration analysis (ATA 18)

12.4	Transmission

12.5	Airframe structures (ATA 51)

(a)	General concept;

(b)	Construction methods of the principal elements.

12.6	Air conditioning (ATA 21)

12.6.1

Air supply

12.6.2

Air conditioning

12.7	Instruments/avionics systems

12.7.1

Instrument systems (ATA 31)

12.7.2

Avionics systems

Fundamentals of system layouts and operation of:

Autoflight (ATA 22);

Communications (ATA 23);

Navigation systems (ATA 34).

12.8	Electrical Power (ATA 24)

12.9	Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25)

(a)	Emergency equipment;

Seats, harnesses, and belts;

Lifting systems;

(b)	Emergency flotation systems;

Cabin layout, cargo retention;

Equipment layout;

Cabin furnishing installation.

12.10

Fire Protection (ATA 26)

(a)	Fire and smoke detection systems and Fire-extinguishing systems;

(b)	Portable fire extinguishers.

12.11

Fuel Systems (ATA 28)

12.12

Hydraulic Power (ATA 29)

12.13

Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30)

12.14

Landing Gear (ATA 32)

(a)	System description and operation;

(b)

Sensors.

12.15

Lights (ATA 33)

12.16

(Reserved)

12.17

Integrated Modular Avionics (ATA 42)

(a)	Overall system description and theory

(b)	Typical system layouts

12.18

On-board Maintenance Systems (ATA 45)

Central maintenance computers;

Data-loading system;

Electronic library system.

12.19

Information Systems (ATA 46)

MODULE 13. AIRCRAFT AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

C/N: Communication & Navigation; Ins.: Instruments; A/F: Autoflight; Sur.: Surveillance; A/S: Airframe & Systems

MODULE 13. AIRCRAFT AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

LEVEL

B2L Basic

B2L

C/N

B2L

Ins.

B2L

A/F

B2L

Sur.

B2L

A/S

13.1	Theory of Flight

(a)	Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls;

—

(b)	Rotary Wing Aerodynamics.

—

13.2	Structures – General Concepts (ATA 51)

(a)	General concept;

—

(b)	Fundamentals of structural systems;

—

13.3	Autoflight (ATA 22)

(a)	Fundamentals of automatic flight control;

—

(b)	Autothrottle systems and automatic landing systems.

—

13.4	Communication/Navigation (ATA 23/34)

(a)	Fundamentals of communication and navigation systems;

—

(b)	Fundamentals of aircraft surveillance systems.

—

13.5	Electrical power (ATA 24)

—

13.6	Equipment and furnishings (ATA 25)

—

13.7	Flight controls

(a)	Primary and secondary flight controls (ATA 27) ;

—

(b)	Actuation and protection;

—

(c)	System operation;

—

(d)	Rotorcraft flight controls (ATA 67) .

—

13.8	Instruments (ATA 31)

—

13.9	Lights (ATA 33)

—

13.10

On-board maintenance systems (ATA 45)

—

13.11

Air conditioning and cabin pressurisation (ATA 21)

(a)	Pressurisation;

—

(b)	Air supply;

—

(c)	Air conditioning;

—

(d)	Safety and warning devices.

—

13.12

Fire protection (ATA 26)

(a)	Fire and smoke detection system and fire-extinguishing systems;

—

(b)	Portable fire extinguisher.

—

13.13

Fuel systems (ATA 28, ATA 47)

(a)	System layout;

—

(b)	Fuel handling;

—

(c)	Indications and warnings;

—

(d)	Special systems;

—

(e)	Balancing.

—

13.14

Hydraulic power (ATA 29)

(a)	System layout;

—

(b)	System operation (1);

—

(c)	System operation (2).

—

13.15

Ice and rain protection (ATA 30)

(a)	Principles;

—

(b)

De-icing;

—

(c)	Anti-icing;

—

(d)	Wiper systems;

—

(e)	Rain repellent.

—

13.16

Landing gear (ATA 32)

(a)	Description;

—

(b)

System;

—

(c)	Air–ground sensing.

—

13.17

Oxygen (ATA 35)

—

13.18

Pneumatic/vacuum (ATA 36)

—

13.19

Water/waste (ATA 38)

—

13.20

Integrated modular avionics (ATA 42)

—

(a)	Overall system description and theory;

—

(b)	Typical system layouts.

—

13.21

Cabin systems (ATA 44)

—

13.22

Information systems (ATA 46)

—

MODULE 14. PROPULSION

LEVEL

B2L Instruments

B2L Airframe & Systems

14.1

Engines

(a)	Turbine engines;

(b)	Auxiliary power units (APUs);

(c)	Piston engines;

(d)	Electric and hybrid engines;

(e)	Engine control.

14.2	Electric/electronic engine indication systems

14.3	Propeller systems

14.4	Starting and ignition systems

MODULE 15. GAS TURBINE ENGINE

LEVEL

B1.1

B1.3

15.1	Fundamentals

15.2	Engine performance

—

15.3

Inlet

15.4	Compressors

15.5	Combustion section

15.6	Turbine section

15.7

Exhaust

15.8	Bearings and seals

—

15.9	Lubricants and fuels

15.10

Lubrication systems

15.11

Fuel systems

15.12

Air systems

15.13

Starting and ignition systems

15.14

Engine indication systems

15.15

Alternate turbine constructions

—

15.16

Turboprop engines

15.17

Turboshaft engines

15.18

Auxiliary power units (APUs)

15.19

Power plant installation

15.20

Fire protection systems

15.21

Engine monitoring and ground operation

15.22

Engine storage and preservation

—

MODULE 16. PISTON ENGINE

LEVEL

B1.2

B1.4

16.1	Fundamentals

16.2	Engine performance

16.3	Engine construction

16.4	Engine fuel systems

16.4.1

Carburettors

16.4.2

Fuel injection systems

16.4.3

Electronic engine control

16.5	Starting and ignition systems

16.6	Induction, exhaust and cooling systems

16.7	Supercharging/turbocharging

16.8	Lubricants and fuels

16.9	Lubrication systems

16.10

Engine indication systems

16.11

Power plant installation

16.12

Engine monitoring and ground operation

16.13

Engine storage and preservation

—

16.14

Alternative piston engine constructions

MODULE 17. PROPELLER

LEVEL

B1.1

B1.2

17.1	Fundamentals

17.2	Propeller construction

17.3	Propeller pitch control

17.4	Propeller synchronising

—

17.5	Propeller ice protection

17.6	Propeller maintenance

17.7	Propeller storage and preservation

2’

(b)

the following point 3 is added:

‘3.

Basic training methods

An appropriate training method, or combination of methods, shall be determined for the entire course or for each of its modules or submodules, with regard to the scope and objectives of each training phase and taking into consideration the benefits and limitations of the available training methods.

Multimedia-based training (MBT) methods may be used in order to achieve the training objectives either in a physically or in a virtually controlled environment.’;

(20)

Appendix II is amended as follows:

(a)

point 1.4 is replaced by the following:

‘1.4.

Suitable essay questions shall be drafted and evaluated using the knowledge syllabus in Appendix I Module 7.’;

(b)

points 1.11, 1.12 and 1.13 are replaced by the following:

‘1.11

An examination in a module may not be retaken earlier than 90 days following the date of a failed examination in that module, except in the case of a maintenance training organisation approved in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147) which delivers a course of retraining tailored to the failed subjects in the particular module; the failed module may be retaken after 30 days.

1.12.

Basic knowledge examinations with a maximum allowed time of more than 90 or more than 180 minutes may be split in two or three partial exams respectively.

Each partial exam shall:

(a)	be complementary to the other partial exam or exams taken by the candidate, ensuring that the combination of partial exams meets the examination requirements for the subject module;

(b)	be of similar allowed time;

(c)	be passed with 75 % or more of the questions answered correctly;

(d)	contain a number of questions that is multiple of four;

(e)	be listed on the same certificate of recognition issued after the last partial exam has been successfully passed. That certificate of recognition shall list the dates and the results of the partial exams – without averaging the results;

(f)	be taken within the same organisation, following the normal examination provisions for retaking failed exams.

1.13.

The maximum number of attempts for each examination is three in a 12-month period.

The applicant shall provide in a written statement to the approved maintenance training organisation or the competent authority to which they apply for an examination, the number, and dates of attempts during the 12 months preceding the examination, and the organisation or the competent authority where those attempts took place. The approved maintenance training organisation or the competent authority is responsible for checking the number of attempts within the applicable time frames.’;

(c)

the following point 1.14 is added:

‘1.14

While it is accepted that the subject matter of the questions may be the same, the questions used as part of the MBT learning programme shall not be used in examinations.’;

(d)

point 2. is replaced by the following:

‘2.

Number of questions per module

2.1.	MODULE 1 – MATHEMATICS Category A: 16 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 20 minutes. Category B1, B2, B2L and B3: 32 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 40 minutes.

2.2.	MODULE 2 – PHYSICS Category A and B3: 32 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 40 minutes. Category B1, B2 and B2L: 52 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 65 minutes.

2.3.	MODULE 3 – ELECTRICAL FUNDAMENTALS Category A: 20 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 25 minutes. Category B3: 24 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 30 minutes. Category B1, B2 and B2L: 52 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 65 minutes.

2.4.	MODULE 4 —ELECTRONICS FUNDAMENTALS Category B1 and B3: 20 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 25 minutes. Category B2 and B2L: 40 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 50 minutes.

2.5.

MODULE 5 – DIGITAL TECHNIQUES/ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS

Category A and B3: 20 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 25 minutes.

Category B1: 40 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 50 minutes.

Category B2 and B2L: 72 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 90 minutes.

2.6.	MODULE 6 – MATERIALS AND HARDWARE Category A: 52 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 65 minutes. Category B1 and B3: 80 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 100 minutes. Category B2 and B2L: 60 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 75 minutes.

2.7.

MODULE 7 – MAINTENANCE PRACTICES

Category A: 76 multiple-choice and 2 essay questions.

Time allowed: 95 minutes plus 40 minutes.

Category B1 and B3: 80 multiple-choice and 2 essay questions.

Time allowed: 100 minutes plus 40 minutes.

Category B2 and B2L: 60 multiple-choice and 2 essay questions.

Time allowed: 75 minutes plus 40 minutes.

2.8.	MODULE 8 – BASIC AERODYNAMICS Category A, B3, B1, B2 and B2L: 24 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 30 minutes.

2.9.	MODULE 9 – HUMAN FACTORS Category A, B1, B3, B2 and B2L: 28 multiple-choice, no essay questions. Time allowed: 35 minutes.

2.10.

MODULE 10 – AVIATION LEGISLATION

Category A: 32 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 40 minutes.

Category B1, B3, B2 and B2L: 44 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 55 minutes.

2.11.

MODULE 11 AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

Category A1: 108 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 135 minutes.

Category A2: 72 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 90 minutes.

Category B1.1: 140 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 175 minutes.

Category B1.2: 100 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 125 minutes.

Category B3: 60 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 75 minutes.

2.12.

MODULE 12 – HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS:

Category A: 100 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 125 minutes.

Category B1.3 and B1.4: 128 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 160 minutes.

2.13.

MODULE 13 – AIRCRAFT AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

Category B2: 188 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 235 minutes.

Category B2L:

System rating	Number of multiple-choice questions	Time allowed (in minutes)
Basic requirements (Submodules 13.1, 13.2, 13.5 and 13.9)	32	40
COM/NAV (Submodule 13.4(a))	24	30
INSTRUMENTS (Submodule 13.8)	20	25
AUTOFLIGHT (Submodules 13.3 and 13.7)	28	35
SURVEILLANCE (Submodule 13.4(b))	20	25
AIRFRAME SYSTEMS (Submodules 13.11 to 13.19)	52	65

2.14.

MODULE 14 – PROPULSION

Category B2 and B2L: 32 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 40 minutes.

NOTE: The B2L examination for Module 14 is only applicable to the ‘Instruments’ and ‘Airframe Systems’ ratings.

2.15.

MODULE 15 – GAS TURBINE ENGINE

Category A1 and A3: 60 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 75 minutes.

Category B1.1 and B1.3: 92 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 115 minutes.

2.16.

MODULE 16 – PISTON ENGINE

Category A2 and A4: 52 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 65 minutes.

Category B3, B1.2 and B1.4: 76 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 95 minutes.

2.17.

MODULE 17 – PROPELLER

Category A1 and A2: 20 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 25 minutes.

Category B3, B1.1 and B1.2: 32 multiple-choice, no essay questions.

Time allowed: 40 minutes.’;

(21)

Appendix III is amended as follows:

(a)	the title is replaced by the following: ‘Appendix III Aircraft type training and type evaluation standard – on-the-job training (OJT)’;

(b)

point 1.(a)(ii) is replaced by the following:

‘(ii)

Shall comply with the standard set out in point 3.1 of this Appendix and, if existing, the elements defined in the operational suitability data (OSD) established in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.’;

(c)

point 1.(b)(ii) is replaced by the following:

‘(ii)

Shall comply with the standard set out in point 3.2 of this Appendix and, if existing, the elements defined in the OSD established in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.’;

(d)

point 1.(b)(iv) is replaced by the following:

‘(iv)

Shall include demonstrations using equipment, components, maintenance simulation training devices (MSTDs), maintenance training devices (MTDs), or real aircraft.’;

(e)

point 1.(c)(i) is replaced by the following:

‘(i)

Differences training is the training required to cover the training differences between:

(a)	two different aircraft type ratings of the same manufacturer as determined by the Agency; or

(b)	two different licence categories in respect of the same aircraft type rating.’;

(f)

the following point 1.(c)(iv) is added:

‘(iv)

the differences training shall have been started and completed within 3 years preceding the application for the new type rating in the same category (case (a)) or in another category (case (b)).’;

(g)

in point 3, the following paragraphs are added after the first paragraph:

‘An appropriate training method, or combination of training methods, shall be determined for the entire course or for each of its parts with regard to the scope and objectives of each training phase and taking into consideration the benefits and limitations of the available training methods.

Multimedia-based training (MBT) methods may be used in order to achieve the training objectives either in a physically or in a virtually controlled environment.’;

(h)

in point 3.1., point (a) is replaced by the following:

‘(a)

Objective:

On completion of a theoretical training course the student shall be able to demonstrate, to the levels identified in the Appendix III syllabus, the detailed theoretical knowledge of the aircraft’s applicable systems, structure, operations, maintenance, repair, and troubleshooting in accordance with maintenance data. The student shall be able to demonstrate the use of manuals and approved procedures, including the knowledge of relevant inspections and limitations.’;

(i)

in point 3.1.(d), the fourth paragraph is replaced by the following:

‘In addition, the course must describe and justify the following:

—	The minimum physical and/or virtual classroom attendance required of the trainee, in order to meet the objectives of the course.

—	The maximum number of hours of physical and/or virtual classroom training per day, taking into account pedagogical and human factors principles.’;

(j)

point 3.1.(e) is amended as follows:

(i)	the following paragraph is added after the second paragraph: ‘If it exists, the minimum syllabus of the operational suitability data (OSD), established in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, shall be included.’;

(ii)

the table is amended as follows:

—	in level ‘Airframe structures’, chapter ‘27A Flight Control Surfaces (All)’ is deleted;

—

in level ‘Airframe systems’, the following chapter 47 is inserted after chapter 46:

’47	Nitrogen generation system

—

2‘

—

in level ‘Airframe systems’, the following chapter ‘55/57 Flight control surfaces (All)’ is added after chapter 50:

‘55/57 Flight control surfaces (All)

—

1‘

(k)	point 3.1.(f) is deleted;

(l)

point 3.2.(b) is amended as follows:

(i)	the following paragraph is inserted between the third and fourth paragraphs: ‘If it exists, the minimum list of practical tasks of the operational suitability data (OSD), established in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, shall be part of the practical elements to be selected.’;

(ii)

the table is amended as follows:

—	in level ‘Airframe structures’, chapter ‘27A Flight Control Surfaces’ is deleted;

—

in level ‘Airframe systems’, the following chapter 47 is inserted after chapter 46:

’47	Nitrogen generation system

X/X

—

X‘

—

in level ‘Airframe systems’, the following chapter ‘55/57 Flight control surfaces’ is added after chapter 50:

‘55/57 Flight control surfaces

X/—

—

—‘

(m)

point 4.1.(f) is replaced by the following:

‘(f)

The number of questions shall be at least one question per hour of training. The number of questions for each chapter and level shall be proportionate to:

—	the effective training hours spent on teaching at that chapter and level; or

—	in case of student-centred methods, the anticipated average time to complete the training; and

—	the learning objectives as given by the training needs analysis.

The competent authority shall assess the number and the level of the questions when approving the course.’;

(n)

the following point 4.1.(j) is added:

‘(j)	Whilst it is accepted that the subject matter of the questions may be the same, the questions used as part of the MBT learning programme shall not be used in course or phase examinations.’;

(o)

points 5 and 6 are replaced by the following:

‘5.

Type evaluation standard for Group 2 and Group 3 aircraft

Type evaluation relative to aircraft of Group 2 or Group 3 shall be conducted by training organisations appropriately approved in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147) or by the competent authority.

The evaluation shall consist of practical assessment and oral examination and comply with the following requirements:

(a)	The practical assessment shall determine the candidate’s competence to perform maintenance tasks applicable to the particular aircraft type.

(b)	The oral examination shall be on a sample of chapters drawn from point 3. ‘Aircraft type training standard’, at the indicated level in point 3.1.(e).

(c)

Both oral examinations and practical assessments shall ensure that the following objectives are met:

1.	properly discuss with confidence the aircraft type and its systems;

ensure safe performance of maintenance, inspections, and routine work according to the maintenance manual and other relevant instructions and tasks as appropriate for the type of aircraft, for example, troubleshooting, repairs, adjustments, replacements, rigging and functional checks such as engine run, etc., if required;.

3.	correctly use all technical literature and documentation for the aircraft;

4.	correctly use specialist/special tooling and test equipment, perform removal and replacement of components and modules unique to type, including any on-wing maintenance activity.

(d)

The following conditions apply to the type evaluation:

The maximum number of attempts for each examination is three in a 12-month period. A waiting period of 30 days is required after the first failed attempt within one set, and a waiting period of 60 days is required after the second failed attempt.

The applicant shall confirm in writing to the maintenance training organisation or the competent authority to which they apply for an examination, the number, and dates of attempts during the last 12-month period and the maintenance training organisation or the competent authority where these attempts took place. The maintenance training organisation or the competent authority is responsible for checking the number of attempts within the applicable time frames.

2.	The type evaluation shall be passed, and the required practical experience shall be completed within the 3 years preceding the application for the rating endorsement on the aircraft maintenance licence.

3.	Type evaluation shall be performed with at least one examiner present. The examiner(s) shall not have been involved in the applicant’s training.

(e)	A written and signed report shall be prepared and made available to the candidate by the examiner(s) to explain why the candidate has passed or failed.

On-the-job training (OJT)

6.1

General

The OJT is the training that the applicant is given on a particular aircraft type in a real workplace, having the possibility to learn maintenance best practices and correct release-to-service procedures. The OJT shall comply with the following requirements:

(a)	The list of the OJT tasks and programme shall be accepted by the competent authority which has issued the maintenance licence before starting the OJT training.

(b)	The OJT shall be conducted at one or more maintenance organisations appropriately approved according to this Regulation for the maintenance of that aircraft type. One of those organisations shall control the OJT.

(c)	The applicant shall have a category A, B or L5 licence before undergoing the OJT or have finished the theoretical type training and cumulated at least 50 % of the basic experience requirement (point 66.A.30) as regards the category of aircraft he or she is trained for.

(d)	The applicant shall start and complete the OJT within 3 years preceding the application for the first type rating endorsement. At least 50 % of the OJT tasks shall take place after the related aircraft theoretical type training has been completed.

(e)

The applicant shall undergo the OJT under the mentorship of a qualified mentor or mentors, on a one-to-one supervision basis, during which the mentors verify the technical knowledge, the skills, and responsibilities of a typical certifying staff. During the OJT, the mentors transmit also knowledge and experience to the applicant, providing the necessary advice, support, and guidance.

(f)

Each task shall be signed off by the applicant and refer to an actual job card/work sheet, etc. The mentors shall verify and countersign off the tasks performed during the OJT, because they shall assume the responsibility for the tasks at support staff or certifying staff level, as applicable, depending on the release-to-service procedure.

(g)	At the satisfactory completion of the OJT programme, the mentors shall issue a recommendation for the final assessment of the applicant to be conducted by designated assessors.

6.2

OJT content and OJT logbook

The OJT shall include a series of activities and tasks representative of the aircraft type rating, systems, and licence category applied for and may cover more than one licence category.

The OJT shall be documented in an OJT logbook reporting the following:

(a)	name of the applicant;

(b)	date of birth of the applicant;

(c)	the approved maintenance organisation(s) where the OJT was carried out;

(d)	aircraft rating and licence categories applied for;

(e)

list of tasks, including:

(i)	task description;

(ii)	reference to job card/work order/aircraft tech log, etc.;

(iii)

location of task completion;

(iv)	date of task completion;

(v)	aircraft registration(s).

(f)	names of the mentors (including licence number, if applicable);

(g)	a signed recommendation of the mentors for the successive final assessment of the applicant.

6.3

Final assessment of the applicant

The final assessment of the applicant may only be performed once the OJT logbook has been completed and the mentors have signed the related recommendation.

The designated assessor(s) conducting the final assessment shall notify the date of the assessment to the licensing authority well in advance to allow a possible participation of the same authority.

The objective of the final assessment is to verify that the applicant has sufficient technical knowledge as well as the appropriate skills and attitude and that he or she is competent to work independently as type-rated certifying staff on a particular aircraft type.

The final assessment shall have a minimum duration of one working day.

(a)

The assessment shall sample:

(1)	the general technical knowledge required for the particular licence category;

(2)	the aircraft-type-specific knowledge and skills for the particular licence category;

(3)	the understanding of the licence privileges relevant to the aircraft and to the licence category;

(4)	the appropriate behaviour and safety attitude of the applicant in relation to the maintenance environment.

(b)

The assessment shall be recorded in a report containing the following information:

(1)	identification data of the applicant;

(2)	identification data of the assessor(s);

(3)	date and time frame of the assessment;

(4)	content of the assessment;

(5)	result of the assessment: Passed or Failed.

(6)	signature of the assessor(s), the candidate and, if applicable, the independent observer(s).

(c)	A failed assessment may be retaken after 3 months or, if additional training has been received and a new recommendation by the mentors has been made, earlier than 3 months if agreed by the assessor(s). After three failed attempts, the complete OJT shall be repeated.

6.4

Requirements for mentors and assessors

Mentors and assessors are maintenance staff with the following qualifications:

(i)

Mentors:

—	hold a valid aircraft maintenance licence (AML) issued in accordance with this Annex or a valid and fully compliant with ICAO Annex 1 AML in accordance with Appendix IV to Annex II (Part-145), which is acceptable to the competent authority;

—	have been holding, for at least 1 year, an AML in the same category, when compared to the one for which the OJT is being mentored, that is endorsed with a type rating appropriate to exercise the privileges on the related aircraft;

—	have the necessary release or sign-off privileges in the maintenance organisation where the OJT is performed;

—

have experience in training other people (such as being apprenticeship instructors, instructors in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147), having received train-the-trainer courses or having any other comparable national qualification, or having a training to do so that is acceptable to the competent authority).

(ii)

Assessors of the final assessment:

—	hold a valid AML issued in accordance with this Annex or a valid and fully compliant with ICAO Annex 1 AML in accordance with Appendix IV to Annex II (Part-145), which is acceptable to the competent authority;

—	have been holding, for at least 3 years, an AML in the same category, when compared to the one for which the OJT is being assessed, endorsed with the same or similar aircraft type rating;

—

have experience and/or have received training in assessing others (such as being apprenticeship instructors, examiners in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147), having received train-the-trainer courses, or having any other comparable national qualification, or having a training to do so that is acceptable to the competent authority);

—	shall not have been involved as a mentor of the applicant in the OJT; when the assessor has taken part in the OJT performance, then an independent observer shall be present during the OJT assessment.

6.5

OJT documentation and records

The satisfactory accomplishment of the OJT shall be attested to the applicant with the final assessment report and the OJT logbook.

The OJT documentation shall be provided to the competent authority to support the application for the issue or change of the licence as laid down in Section B, Subpart B, of this Annex.

Records of the OJT documentation shall be kept by the maintenance organisation where the OJT is conducted, in accordance with the procedures agreed with the competent authority of the maintenance organisation.’;

(22)

Appendix IV is replaced by the following:

‘Appendix IV

Experience and basic knowledge modules or partial modules required for extending an aircraft maintenance licence under Annex III (Part-66)

A. Experience requirements

Table A below shows the experience requirements, in months, for adding a new category or subcategory to a licence granted in accordance with Annex III (Part-66).

The experience requirements can be reduced by 50 % if the applicant has completed an approved Part-147 basic training course relevant to a particular subcategory.

Table A

To: From:	A1	A2	A3	A4	B1.1	B1.2	B1.3	B1.4	B2	B2L	B3	L1	L2	L3	L4	L5
A1	—	6	6	6	24	6	24	12	24	12	6	12	12	12	12	24
A2	6	—	6	6	24	6	24	12	24	12	6	12	12	12	12	24
A3	6	6	—	6	24	12	24	6	24	12	12	12	12	12	12	24
A4	6	6	6	—	24	12	24	6	24	12	12	12	12	12	12	24
B1.1	—	6	6	6	—	6	6	6	12	12	6	6	6	12	12	12
B1.2	6	—	6	6	24	—	24	6	24	12	—	—	—	12	12	12
B1.3	6	6	—	6	6	6	—	6	12	12	6	6	6	12	12	12
B1.4	6	6	6	—	24	6	24	—	24	12	6	6	6	12	12	12
B2	6	6	6	6	12	12	12	12	—	—	12	6	6	12	12	24
B2L	6	6	6	6	12	12	12	12	12	—	12	6	6	12	12	24
B3	6	—	6	6	24	6	24	12	24	12	—	—	—	12	12	12
L1	24	24	24	24	36	24	36	24	36	24	24	—	6 (*)	12 (*)	12 (*)	24 (*)
L2	24	12	24	24	36	12	36	24	36	24	12	—	—	12 (*)	12 (*)	24 (*)
L3	30	30	30	30	48	30	48	30	48	30	30	12 (*)	12 (*)	—	6 (*)	24 (*)
L4	30	30	30	30	48	30	48	30	48	30	30	12 (*)	12 (*)	—	—	24 (*)
L5	24	24	24	24	36	24	36	24	36	24	24	12 (*)	12 (*)	12 (*)	—	—

B. Basic knowledge modules or partial modules required

The purpose of this table is to outline the examinations required to add a new basic category/subcategory to an AML granted in accordance with this Annex.

The syllabi prepared in accordance with Appendix I and Appendix VII require different levels of knowledge for different licence categories within a module; therefore, there are additional examinations applicable to certain modules for licence holders wishing to extend an AML granted in accordance with this Annex to include another category/subcategory and an analysis of the module shall be conducted to determine the subjects missing or passed at a lower level.

Table B

From

B1.1

B1.2

B1.3

B1.4

B2L

L1C

L2C

L3H

L3G

L4H

L4G

None

16.

12.

12, 16.

All except 9.

All except 2, 8, 9.

All except 2L.

All except 9.

11, 15.

None

12, 15.

12.

All except 9.

All except 2, 8, 9.

All except 2L.

All except 9.

11, 17.

11, 16, 17.

None

16.

All except 9.

All except 2, 8, 9.

All except 2L.

All except 9.

11, 15, 17.

11, 17.

15.

None

All except 9.

All except 2, 8, 9.

All except 2L.

All except 9.

B1.1

None

16.

12.

12, 16.

None

16.

12.

12, 16.

4, 5, 13,14

4, 5, 13SQ, 14SQ

16.

12L.

8L**, 12L.

9L.

10L.

9L,11L.

10L,

11L.

8L**, 10L,11,12L.

B1.2

11,15.

None

12, 15.

12.

11, 15.

None

12, 15.

12.

4, 5,13,14

4, 5, 13SQ. 14SQ

None

12L.

8L*,

12L.

8L*,

12L.

9L.

10L.

9L,11L.

10L,

11L.

8L*, 10L,11,12L.

B1.3

11, 17.

11, 16, 17.

None

16.

11, 17.

11, 16, 17.

None

16.

4, 5,13,14

4, 5, 13SQ. 14SQ

11, 16, 17.

7L,12L.

7L,8L**,12L.

9L.

10L.

9L,11L.

10L,

11L.

8L**, 10L,11,12L.

B1.4

11, 15, 17.

11, 17.

15.

None

11, 15, 17.

11, 17.

15.

None

4, 5,13,14

4, 5, 13SQ. 14SQ

11, 17.

7L,12L.

7L,8L*,12L.

9L.

10L.

9L,11L.

10L,

11L.

8L*, 10L,11,12L.

6, 7, 11, 15, 17.

6, 7, 11, 16, 17.

6, 7, 12, 15.

6, 7, 12, 16.

6, 7, 11, 15, 17.

6, 7, 11, 16, 17.

6, 7, 12, 15.

6, 7, 12, 16.

None

6, 7, 11, 16, 17.

5L, 7L.

4L, 5L, 6L,7L.

5L,7L, 8L.

4L,5L, 6L,7L, 8L.

9L.

10L.

9L, 11L.

10L, 11L.

6, 7, 11 or 12, 15 or 16, 17, 8L, 10L

B2L

6, 7, 11, 15, 17.

6, 7, 11, 16, 17.

6, 7, 12, 15.

6, 7, 12, 16.

6, 7, 11, 15, 17.

6, 7, 11, 16, 17.

6, 7, 12, 15.

6, 7, 12, 16.

13SQ, 14SQ.

None

6, 7, 11, 16, 17.

5L, 7L, 12LSQ.

4L, 5L, 6L, 7L, 12LSQ.

5L, 7L, 8L, 12LSQ.

4L, 5L, 6L, 7L, 8L, 12LSQ.

9L.

10L.

9L, 11L.

10L, 11L.

6, 7, 11 or 12, 15 or 16, 17, 8L, 10L

11,15.

12,15.

12.

2,3,5,8, 11,15.

2,3,5,8, 11.

2,3,5, 8, 12,15.

2,3,5,8, 12.

2,3,4, 5, 8, 13, 14.

2,3,4, 5, 8, 13SQ.

None

12L.

8L*, 12L.

9L.

10L.

9L, 11L.

10L, 11L.

2,3,5,8, 11 or 12, 8L*, 10L, 11L, 12L.

From

B1.1

B1.2

B1.3

B1.4

B2L

L1C

L2C

L3H

L3G

L4H

L4G

L1C

All

None

4L, 6L.

8L.

4L, 6L, 8L.

9L.

10L.

8L,9L, 11L.

8L, 10L, 11L.

All

None

8L.

9L.

10L.

8L,9L, 11L.

8L,10L, 11L.

L2C

All

None

4L,6L.

None

4L, 6L.

9L.

10L.

9L,11L.

10L, 11L.

All

None

9L.

10L.

9L,11L.

10L, 11L.

L3H

All

5L,7L.

4L,5L, 6L,7L.

5L,7L, 8L.

4L,5L, 6L,7L, 8L.

None

10L.

8L,11L.

8L,10L, 11L.

L3G

All

5L,7L.

4L,5L, 6L,7L.

5L,7L, 8L.

4L,5L, 6L,7L, 8L.

9L.

None

8L,9L, 11L.

8L,11L.

L4H

All

5L,7L.

4L,5L, 6L,7L.

5L,7L.

4L,5L, 6L,7L.

None

10L.

None

10L.

L4G

All

5L,7L.

4L,5L, 6L,7L.

5L,7L.

4L,5L, 6L,7L.

9L.

None

9L.

None

SQ = it depends on system qualification

*:	excluding the subjects related to piston engines

**:	excluding the subjects related to turbine engines;

’.

(23)

The EASA Form 26 contained in Appendix VI is amended as follows:

(a)

page 1 is replaced by the following:

‘I.

EUROPEAN UNION (*)

[STATE]

[AUTHORITY NAME & LOGO]

II.

Part-66

AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE LICENCE

III.

Licence No [MEMBER STATE CODE].66.[XXXX]

EASA FORM 26 Issue 6‘

(b)

the page containing PART XIII. PART-66 LIMITATIONS is replaced by the following:

‘XIII.

PART-66 LIMITATIONS

Licence valid until:

III.	Licence No:‘

(24)

Appendix VII is replaced by the following:

‘Appendix VII

Basic knowledge requirements for a category L aircraft maintenance licence

The definitions of the different levels of knowledge required in this Appendix are the same as those set out in point 1 of Appendix I.

1. Modularisation

The modules required for each aircraft licence subcategory/category shall be in accordance with the following matrix. Where applicable, the subject modules are indicated by an ‘X’, while ‘n/a’ means that the subject module is not applicable nor required.

The basic knowledge requirement for L5 shall be the same as for any B1 subcategory (as indicated in Appendix I) plus other modules as shown in the matrix.

Licence subcategories

Composite sailplanes

Sailplanes

Composite powered sailplanes and composite ELA1 aeroplanes

Powered sailplanes and ELA1 aeroplanes

Hot-air balloons

Gas balloons

Hot-air airships

ELA2 gas airships

Gas airships above ELA2

Subject modules

L1C

L2C

L3H

L3G

L4H

L4G

1L	‘Basic knowledge’

n/a

2L	‘Human factors’

n/a

3L	‘Aviation legislation’

n/a

4L	‘Wooden and/or metal-tube structure covered with fabric’

n/a

5L	‘Composite structure’

n/a

6L	‘Metallic structure’

n/a

7L	‘Airframe – general, mechanical and electrical systems’

n/a

8L	‘Power plant’

n/a

X (*1)

9L	‘Balloons – hot-air balloons’

n/a

10L	‘Balloons – gas (free/tethered) balloons’

n/a

11L	‘Airships – hot-air/gas AIRSHIPS’

n/a

12L	‘Radio Com/ELT/Transponder/Instruments’

n/a

MODULE 1L – BASIC KNOWLEDGE

Level

1L.1

Mathematics

—	Arithmetic

—

Algebra

—

Geometry

1L.2

Physics

—

Matter

—

Mechanics

—	Temperature

1L.3

Electrics

—	AC and DC circuits

1L.4	Aerodynamics/aerostatics

1L.5	Workplace safety and environmental protection

MODULE 2L – HUMAN FACTORS

Level

2L.1

General

2L.2	Human performance and limitations

2L.3	Social psychology

2L.4	Factors that affect performance

2L.5	Physical environment

2L.6	The ‘Dirty Dozen’ and risk mitigation

MODULE 3L – AVIATION LEGISLATION

Level

3L.1	Regulatory framework

3L.2	Continuing airworthiness regulations

3L.3	Repairs and modifications (Part-ML)

3L.4	Maintenance data (Part-ML)

3L.5	Licence privileges and how to exercise them properly (Part-66, Part-ML)

MODULE 4L – WOODEN AND/OR METAL-TUBE STRUCTURE COVERED WITH FABRIC

Level

4L.1	Airframe wooden/combination of metal tube and fabric

4L.2

Materials

4L.3	Identifying damages and defects

4L.4	Standard repair and maintenance procedures

MODULE 5L – COMPOSITE STRUCTURE

Level

5L.1	Airframe fibre-reinforced plastic (FRP)

5L.2

Materials

5L.3	Identifying damages and defects

5L.4	Standard repair and maintenance procedures

MODULE 6L – METALLIC STRUCTURE

Level

6L.1	Metallic airframe

6L.2

Materials

6L.3	Identifying damages and defects

6L.4	Standard repair and maintenance procedures

MODULE 7L – AIRFRAME – GENERAL, MECHANICAL AND ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS

Level

7L.1	Theory of flight – gliders and aeroplanes

7L.2	Airframe structure – gliders and aeroplanes

7L.3	Air conditioning (ATA 21)

7L.4	Electrical power, cables and connectors (ATA 24)

7L.5	Equipment and furnishing (ATA 25)

7L.6	Fire protection and other safety systems (ATA 26)

7L.7	Flight controls (ATA 27)

7L.8	Fuel system (ATA 28)

7L.9	Hydraulic power (ATA 29)

7L.10

Ice and rain protection (ATA 30)

7L.11

Landing gear (ATA 32)

7L.12

Lights (ATA 33)

7L.13

Oxygen (ATA 35)

7L.14

Pneumatic/vacuum (ATA 36)

7L.15

Water ballast (ATA 41)

7L.16

Fasteners

7L.17

Pipes, hoses and connectors

7L.18

Springs

7L.19

Bearings

7L.20

Transmissions

7L.21

Control cables

7L.22

Fits and clearances

7L.23

Aircraft weight and balance

7L.24

Workshop practices and tools

7L.25

Disassembly, inspection, repair and assembly techniques

7L.26

Abnormal events

7L.27

Maintenance procedures

MODULE 8L – POWER PLANT

Piston

Turbine

Electrical

Level

8L.1	General engine fundamentals

8L.2	Piston engine fundamentals and performance

8L.3	Piston engine construction

8L.4	Piston engine fuel system (non-electronic)

8L.5	Starting and ignition system

8L.6	Air intake, exhaust and cooling system

8L.7	Supercharging/turbocharging

8L.8	Lubrication systems of piston engines

8L.9	Engine indication systems

8L.10

Electric aircraft engines

8L.11

Turbine engine fundamentals and performance

8L.12

Inlet and compressor

8L.13

Combustion chamber, starting and ignition system

8L.14

Turbine section and exhaust

8L.15

Other turbine engine components and systems

8L.16

Turbine engine inspections and ground operation

8L.17

Propeller

8L.18

Full authority digital engine control (FADEC)

8L.19

Lubricants and fuels

8L.20

Engine and propeller installation

8L.21

Engine monitoring and ground operation

8L.22

Engine/propeller storage and preservation

MODULE 9L – BALLOONS – HOT-AIR BALLOONS

Level

9L.1	Theory of flight – hot-air balloons

9L.2	General airframe of hot-air balloons

9L.3

Envelope

9L.4	Heater system/burner

9L.5	Basket and basket suspension (including alternative devices)

9L.6	Instruments

9L.7

Equipment

9L.8	Hot-air balloon handling and storage

9L.9	Disassembly, inspection, repair and assembly techniques

MODULES 10L – BALLOONS – GAS (FREE/TETHERED) BALLOONS

Level

10L.1

Theory of flight – gas balloons

10L.2

General airframe of gas balloons

10L.3

Envelope

10L.4

Netting

10L.5

Valves, parachutes and other related systems

10L.6

Load ring

10L.7

Basket (including alternative devices)

10L.8

Ropes and lines

10L.9

Instruments

10L.10

Tethered gas balloon (TGB) systems

10L.11

Equipment

10L.12

Gas balloon handling and storage

10L.13

Disassembly, inspection, repair and assembly techniques

MODULES 11L – AIRSHIPS – HOT-AIR/GAS AIRSHIPS

Level

11L.1

Theory of flight and control of airships

11L.2

Airship airframe structure – general concepts

11L.3

Airship envelope

11L.4

Gondola

11L.5

Airship flight control (ATA 27/55)

11L.6

Electrical power (ATA 24)

11L.7

Lights (ATA 33)

11L.8

Ice and rain protection

11L.9

Fuel systems (ATA 28)

11L.10

Engine and propellers in airships

11L.11

Airship handling and storage

11L.12

Disassembly, inspection, repair and assembly techniques

MODULE 12L – RADIO COM/ELT/TRANSPONDER/INSTRUMENTS

Level

12L.1

Radio Com/ELT

12L.2

Transponder and FLARM

12L.3

Instruments

12L.4

Avionics general test equipment

‘;

(25)

Appendix VIII is amended as follows:

(a)

in point (a), the following points (vi) and (vii) are added:

‘(vi)

a failed module may not be retaken for at least 90 days from the date of the failed module examination;

(vii)

the maximum number of attempts for each examination is three in a 12-month period.’;

(b)

point (b) is replaced by the following:

‘(b)

The number of questions per module shall be as follows:

(i)	module 1L ‘BASIC KNOWLEDGE’: 20 questions. Time allowed: 25 minutes;

(ii)	module 2L ‘HUMAN FACTORS’: 20 questions. Time allowed: 25 minutes;

(iii)

module 3L ‘AVIATION LEGISLATION’: 28 questions.

Time allowed: 35 minutes;

(iv)	module 4L ‘WOODEN AND/OR METAL-TUBE STRUCTURE COVERED WITH FABRIC’: 40 questions. Time allowed: 50 minutes;

(v)	module 5L ‘COMPOSITE STRUCTURE’: 32 questions. Time allowed: 40 minutes;

(vi)	module 6L ‘METALLIC STRUCTURE’: 32 questions. Time allowed: 40 minutes;

(vii)

module 7L ‘AIRFRAME – GENERAL, MECHANICAL AND ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS’: 60 questions.

Time allowed: 75 minutes;

(viii)

module 8L ‘POWER PLANT’: 64 questions.

Time allowed: 80 minutes;

(ix)	module 9L ‘BALLOONS – HOT-AIR BALLOONS’: 36 questions. Time allowed: 45 minutes;

(x)	module 10L ‘BALLOONS – GAS (FREE/TETHERED) BALLOONS’: 44 questions. Time allowed: 55 minutes;

(xi)	module 11L ‘AIRSHIPS – HOT-AIR/GAS AIRSHIPS’: 40 questions. Time allowed: 50 minutes;

(xii)

Module 12L ‘RADIO COM/ELT/TRANSPONDER/INSTRUMENTS’: 20 questions.

Time allowed: 25 minutes.’;

(26)

the following Appendix IX is added:

‘Appendix IX

Assessment method for the multimedia-based training (MBT)

The purpose of this Appendix is to establish the requirements for the assessment and approval by a competent authority of any course that includes MBT in accordance with point 66.B.135.

This Appendix may be used for the assessment of other training courses if the competent authority decides that the assessment method laid down in this Appendix are appropriate for such other courses.

The assessment shall be conducted by the competent authority against all the criteria laid down in Table (A), grouped in four categories from (a) to (d). The competent authority shall clearly identify in the table the MBT product being assessed and its production and update versions.

The competent authority carrying out the assessment shall put itself in the position of the student or the end user and shall rate each criterion listed in Table (A) individually on a rating scale from 1 to 5, as follows:

1:	Not acceptable. Does not meet the required criteria.

2:	Partially acceptable, but improvement is needed to meet the required criteria.

3:	Acceptable. Meets the required criteria.

4:	Good. Meets the required criteria with enhancements made.

5:	Excellent. Exceeds the required criteria.

If one or more of the criteria is rated below 3, an alternative learning process shall be requested by the competent authority in order to enhance the suitability of the product to an acceptable level.

Once the competent authority has rated each of the individual criteria listed in Table (A), the following combined rating scale shall be used by the competent authority to determine the overall suitability level for each MBT learning resource:

—	100–80: Excellent learning resource. It offers different functionalities and meets the required suitability criteria.

—	79–60: The learning resource meets the required suitability criteria.

—	59–40: The learning resource does not allow for a sufficiently worthy educational use. It can be used for ‘informal’ training only.

—	39–20: The learning resource is below the average. It does not meet several required suitability criteria.

Before approving the product, the competent authority shall check that the final score of the MBT is equal to or above 60, and that there is no single criterion that is rated below 3.

Table (A): Assessment for the multimedia-based training (MBT)

Assessment table for the multimedia-based training (MBT)

Product identification:

Name:

Version:

SCORE (1–5)

Category (a) ‘academic quality’

Information reliability

1.	The information is reliable.

Information relevance

2.	The information is relevant.

Category (b) ‘pedagogical quality’

Pedagogical formulation/construction

3.	The quality of the resource simplification is adequate.

4.	The educational resource presents an appropriate number of overviews and summaries.

5.	The resource is clearly structured (summaries, plans).

6.	The structure promotes its use in the pedagogical context.

Pedagogical strategies

7.	The learning objectives are stated.

8.	The resource includes stimuli to promote learning.

9.	The resource creates interaction between student and instructor.

10.	The active engagement of the student is fostered.

11.	Student-centred learning is present.

12.	Problem-solving tasks encourage learning.

13.	The resource enables communication between students.

14.	The student is able to see their learning progress.

Student assessment methods

15.	The resource provides a self-assessment procedure.

Category (c) ‘didactic quality’

Learning activities

16.	The content refers to real-life situations that the student could possibly face in an actual maintenance environment.

Learning content

17.	The content is adequate to meet the learning objectives.

Category (d) ‘technical quality’

Design

18.	The content and organisation of the learning resource includes the appropriate use of colours, interactivity, graphic quality, animations, and illustrations.

Browsing

19.	Navigation methods are clear, consistent, and intuitive.

Technological aspects

20.	Multimedia techniques promote the transfer of information.

Final score:

Notes:

The following shall be taken into account by the competent authority when assessing the MBT against the individual criteria listed in Table (A):

Categories:

(a)

Academic quality

The information presented in the multimedia resource shall have two characteristics:

i.	Reliability: the information is reliable, current, and relatively free of errors. The information complies with the current regulatory requirements.

ii.	Relevance: the information is relevant to the learning objectives defined for the course. It supports the student in achieving the learning objectives.

(b)

Pedagogical quality

The MBT emphasises the activities which promote the development of the required knowledge and skills.

The main criteria for each product are related to three aspects:

Pedagogical formulation/construction: it is characterised by the quality of simplification, the presence of summaries as well as the use of diagrams, figures, animations, and illustrations. It evaluates whether the structure of the learning resource promotes its use in a pedagogical context. This refers to the ease of orientation (summary, lesson plan), presence of appropriate interactions, usability (back, forward, scroll boxes, etc.), and communication resources (questions and answers, FAQs, forum, etc.)

ii.	Pedagogical strategies: teaching and learning styles should be based on active teaching approaches to build meaningful situations related to learning objectives and to learner motivation.

iii.	Student assessment methods: methods are implemented to measure the achievement of learning objectives.

(c)

Didactic quality

i.	Learning activities: the content refers to real-life situations the student could possibly face in an actual maintenance environment.

ii.	Learning content: the content is adequate to meet the learning objectives.

(d)

Technical quality

This section assesses the design, browsing and technological aspects of the learning resources:

i.	Design: the content and organisation of the learning resource shall promote the appropriate use of colours, interactivity, graphic quality for selected images, animations, and illustrations.

ii.	Browsing: while navigating, the student should be able to find a plan, an index, or a detailed table of contents. The suggested choices or guidelines shall be clear and the groupings within the menus shall be consistent.

iii.	Technological aspects: multimedia techniques aim to combine and exploit the capacities of any new technology in education to enhance the transfer of knowledge. Therefore, the system shall favour the use of animations, simulations, or any other interactive elements.

’.

(*) Experience may be reduced by 50 % but allowing a licence with limitations, i.e. a licence endorsed with the exclusion of ‘complex maintenance tasks provided for in Appendix VII to Annex I (Part-M), standard changes provided for in point 21.A.90B of Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, and standard repairs provided for in point 21.A.431B of Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012’.

(*1) Only applicable propulsion subjects of Module 8L are required; these depend on the B1 subcategory the applicant comes from.

ANNEX II

ANNEX IV (Part-147) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 is amended as follows:

(1)

in the table of contents, point 147.A.305 is replaced by the following: ‘147.A.305 Aircraft type evaluation and task assessment’;

(2)

point 147.A.100 is amended as follows:

(a)

point (b) is replaced by the following:

‘(b)	Fully enclosed, appropriate accommodation, separate from other facilities, shall be provided for the delivery of the theoretical training and the conduct of knowledge examinations.’;

(b)

point (f) is replaced by the following:

‘(f)	The maximum number of students undergoing practical training during any training course shall not exceed 15 per instructor or assessor.’;

(c)

point (h) is replaced by the following:

‘(h)

Secure storage facilities shall be provided for examination and training records. The storage environment shall be such that documents remain in good condition for the retention period as specified in point 147.A.125. The storage facilities and office accommodation may be combined, subject to adequate security.’;

(d)

the following point (j) is added:

‘(j)

By derogation from points (a) to (d) and (f), in the case of distance learning performed at a location where the organisation approved under this Annex has no control over the environment where the student is located, the organisation approved under this Annex shall brief the student and raise their awareness regarding the suitability of their learning location. This derogation applies only to distance learning and not to the corresponding examination and/or assessment.’;

(3)

in point 147.A.105, point (c) is replaced by the following:

‘(c)	The maintenance training organisation shall contract with sufficient staff to plan/perform theoretical and practical training, conduct knowledge examinations and practical assessments in accordance with the approval.’;

(4)

point 147.A.115 is amended as follows:

(a)

point (a) is replaced by the following:

‘(a)

Each classroom shall have appropriate presentation equipment of a standard that ensures that students can easily read presentation text, drawings, diagrams and figures from any position in the classroom.

For virtual training environments, the training content shall be designed in such a way to assist students in their understanding of the particular subject matter, ensuring that students can easily read presentation text, drawings, diagrams and figures.

The presentation equipment may include representative maintenance simulation training devices (MSTDs) to assist students in their understanding of the particular subject matter where such devices are considered beneficial for such purposes.’;

(b)

point (d) is replaced by the following:

‘(d)	The aircraft type training organisation as specified in point 147.A.100(e) must have access to the appropriate aircraft type. MSTDs may be used when such training devices ensure adequate training standards.’;

(5)

in point 147.A.120, the following point (c) is added:

‘(c)	Access to the maintenance training material relevant to basic or type training courses may be provided as a hard copy or by electronic means provided that the student has the appropriate means to access such material at any given time during the entire duration of the course.’;

(6)

in point 147.A.135, the following point (d) is added:

‘(d)

The examination shall be performed in a controlled environment by a training organisation approved under this Annex and described in its maintenance training organisation exposition (MTOE).

For examination purposes, a ‘controlled environment’ means an environment where the following can be established and verified: (a) the identity of the students; (b) the proper conduct of the examination process; (c) the integrity of the examination and (d) the security of the examination material.’;

(7)

in point 147.A.145, point (b) is replaced by the following:

‘(b)	Theoretical training, knowledge examinations, practical training and practical assessments may be carried out only at the locations identified in the approval certificate or at any location specified in the MTOE.’;

(8)

point 147.A.200 is amended as follows:

(a)

point (g) is replaced by the following:

‘(g)

Notwithstanding point (f), in order to benefit from changes in training technologies and methods (theoretical training), or from credits specified in point 66.A.25(e) of Annex III (Part-66), the number of hours as established in Appendix I (Basic training course duration) may be amended provided that the syllabus content and schedule describe and justify the proposed changes. A procedure shall be included in the MTOE to justify those changes.’;

(b)

the following point (h) is added:

‘(h)	The duration of conversion courses between (sub)categories shall be determined through an assessment of the basic training syllabus and the related practical training needs.’;

(9)

point 147.A.305 is replaced by the following:

‘147.A.305

Aircraft type evaluation and task assessment

A maintenance training organisation approved in accordance with point 147.A.300 to conduct aircraft type training shall conduct the aircraft type evaluation or aircraft task assessment specified in Annex III (Part-66) subject to compliance with the aircraft type and/or task standard specified in point 66.A.45 of Annex III (Part-66).’;

(10)

Appendix III is amended as follows:

(a)

point 1 is replaced by the following:

‘1.

Basic Training and Examination

The basic training certificate template shall be used for recognition of completion of either the basic training or the basic examination, or both the basic training and basic training examinations.

The training certificate shall clearly identify each individual module examination by date passed together with the corresponding version of Appendix I to Annex III (Part-66).

EASA Form 148a shall be used for training and examinations conducted by a training organisation approved in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147).

EASA Form 148b shall be used for examinations conducted by the competent authority.

Page 1 of 1

CERTIFICATE OF RECOGNITION

Reference: [MEMBER STATE CODE (*)].147.[XXXX].[YYYYY]

This certificate of recognition is issued to:

[NAME]

[DATE and PLACE OF BIRTH]

By:

[COMPANY NAME AND ADDRESS]

Reference: [MEMBER STATE CODE (*)].147.[XXXX]

a maintenance training organisation approved to provide training and conduct examinations within its approval schedule and in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147) to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014.

This certificate attests that the above-named person has successfully attended and/or passed (**) the approved basic training course(s) (**) and/or the basic examination(s) (**) stated below in compliance with Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council and with Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014.

[BASIC TRAINING COURSE(S) (**)]/[BASIC EXAMINATION(S) (**)]

[LIST OF PART-66 MODULES/LOCATION AND DATE OF EXAMINATION PASSED]

Date: …

Signed: …

For: [COMPANY NAME]

EASA Form 148a Issue 1

(*)	Or ‘EASA’, if EASA is the competent authority.

(**)

NDelete as appropriate. Possible cases:

—	attended and passed the basic training course(s); or

—	attended only the basic training course(s); or

—	passed only the basic examination(s).

Page 1 of 1

CERTIFICATE OF RECOGNITION

Reference: [Member State Code(*)].CAA.[XXXX].[YYYY]

This certificate of recognition is issued to:

[NAME]

[DATE and PLACE OF BIRTH]

By:

[COMPETENT AUTHORITY NAME]

[COMPETENT AUTHORITY ADDRESS]

after having conducted examination in accordance with Section B, Subpart C of Annex III (Part-66) to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014.

This certificate attests that the above-named person has successfully passed the basic examination(s) stated below in compliance with Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council and with Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014.

[BASIC EXAMINATION(S)]

[LIST OF PART-66 MODULES/LOCATION AND DATE OF EXAMINATION PASSED]

Date:.…

Signed: …

For: [COMPETENT AUTHORITY NAME]

EASA Form 148b Issue 1’;

(b)

point 2 is amended as follows:

(i)	the title is replaced by the following: ‘2. Type Training Examination and Assessment’;

(ii)

the first paragraph is replaced by the following:

‘The type training certificate template shall be used for recognition of completion of either the examination of the theoretical element (training included) or the assessment of the practical element (training included), or both elements of the type rating training course (Appendix III to Annex III (Part-66), points 1(a) and (b)).’;

(iii)

the following paragraphs are inserted after the fourth paragraph:

‘The same form shall be used for the recognition of completion of the aircraft type evaluation (point 66.A.45(d) of Annex III (Part-66) and point 5 of Appendix III to that Annex).

EASA Form 149a shall be used for training and examinations conducted by a training organisation approved in accordance with Annex IV (Part-147).

EASA Form 149b shall be used for type training examinations and type evaluations conducted by the competent authority or as recognition of completion of aircraft type training approved through the direct approval procedure of point 66.B.130 of Annex III (Part-66).’;

(iv)

the form is replaced by the following:

‘Page 1 of 1

CERTIFICATE OF RECOGNITION

Reference: [MEMBER STATE CODE (*)].147.[XXXX].[YYYYY]

This certificate of recognition is issued to:

[NAME]

[DATE and PLACE OF BIRTH]

By:

[COMPANY NAME AND ADDRESS]

Reference: [MEMBER STATE CODE (*)].147.[XXXX]

This certificate attests that the above-named person has successfully passed the theoretical (**) and/or the practical elements (**) of the approved aircraft type training course; or completed the aircraft type evaluation (**) stated below in compliance with Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council and with Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014.

[AIRCRAFT TYPE TRAINING COURSE (**)]

[START and END DATES]/[LOCATION]

[SPECIFY THE THEORETICAL/PRACTICAL ELEMENTS]

[AIRCRAFT TYPE EVALUATION (**)]

[END DATE]/[LOCATION]

Date:…

Signed:…

For: [COMPANY NAME]

EASA Form 149a Issue 1

(*)	Or ‘EASA’, if EASA is the competent authority.

(**)

Delete as appropriate. Possible cases:

—	completely attended and passed the theoretical elements and positively assessed on the practical elements of the type training course; or

—	completely attended and passed only the theoretical elements; or

—	positively assessed on the practical elements; or

—	positively completed the aircraft type evaluation.

Page 1 of 1

CERTIFICATE OF RECOGNITION

Reference: [MEMBER STATE CODE(*)].CAA.[XXXX].[YYYY]

This certificate of recognition is issued to:

[NAME]

[DATE and PLACE OF BIRTH]

By:

[COMPETENT AUTHORITY NAME]

[COMPETENT AUTHORITY ADDRESS]

after having conducted examination in accordance with Section B, Subpart C of Annex III (Part-66) to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 or according to the procedure for the direct approval of aircraft type training of point 66.B.130 of Annex III (Part-66) to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014.

This certificate attests that the above-named person has successfully passed the theoretical (*) and/or the practical elements (*) of the approved aircraft type training course; or completed the aircraft Type Evaluation (*) stated below in compliance with Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 of the European Parliament and of the Council and with Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014.

[AIRCRAFT TYPE TRAINING COURSE (*)]

[START and END DATES]/[LOCATION]

[SPECIFY THE THEORETICAL/PRACTICAL ELEMENTS]

[AIRCRAFT TYPE EVALUATION (*)]

[END DATE]/[LOCATION]

Date: …

Signed: . …

For: [COMPETENT AUTHORITY NAME]

EASA Form 149b Issue 1

(*)

Delete as appropriate. Possible cases:

—	completely attended and passed the theoretical elements and positively assessed on the practical elements of the type training course; or

—	completely attended and passed only the theoretical elements; or

—	positively assessed on the practical elements; or

—	positively completed the aircraft type evaluation.’.

ANNEX III

Annex I (Part-M) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 is corrected as follows:

(1)

in point M.A.302, point (d) is replaced by the following:

‘(d)

The AMP shall demonstrate compliance with:

(1)	the instructions issued by the competent authority;

(2)

the instructions for continuing airworthiness:

(i)

issued by the holders of the type certificate, restricted type certificate, supplemental type certificate, major repair design approval, ETSO authorisation or the declarant of a declaration of design compliance or the holder of any other relevant approval issued under Annex I (Part 21) or, as applicable, Annex Ib (Part 21 Light), to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012;

(ii)	included in the certification specifications referred to in points 21.A.90B or 21.A.431B of Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, if applicable;

(iii)

included in the certification specifications referred to in points 21L.A.62, 21L.A.102, 21L.A.202 or 21L.A.222 of Annex Ib (Part 21 Light) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, if applicable;

(3)	the applicable provisions of Annex I (Part-26) to Regulation (EU) 2015/640.’;

(2)

point M.A.502 is replaced by the following:

‘M.A.502 Component maintenance

(a)

The maintenance of components other than the components referred to in points (b)(2) to (b)(6) of point 21.A.307 of Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 or, as applicable, points (b)(2) to (b)(6) of point 21L.A.193 of Annex Ib (Part 21 Light) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 shall be performed by maintenance organisations approved in accordance with Subpart F of this Annex or with Annex II (Part-145) or Annex Vd (Part-CAO) to this Regulation, as applicable.

(b)

By way of derogation from point (a), where a component is fitted to the aircraft, the maintenance of such a component may be performed by an aircraft maintenance organisation approved in accordance with Subpart F of this Annex or with Annex II (Part-145) or with Annex Vd (Part-CAO) or by the certifying staff referred to in point (b)(1) of point M.A.801 of this Annex. Such maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the aircraft maintenance data or in accordance with the component maintenance data if agreed by the competent authority. Such aircraft maintenance organisation or the certifying staff may temporarily remove the component for maintenance where it becomes necessary to improve access to the component, except where additional maintenance is required due to the removal. Component maintenance performed in accordance with this point shall not be eligible for the issuance of an EASA Form 1 and shall be subject to the aircraft release requirements provided for in point M.A.801 of this Annex.

(c)

By way of derogation from point (a), where a component is fitted to the engine or the auxiliary power unit (APU), the maintenance of such component may be performed by an engine maintenance organisation approved in accordance with Subpart F of this Annex, or with Annex II (Part-145) or Annex Vd (Part-CAO). Such maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the engine or the APU maintenance data or in accordance with the component maintenance data if agreed by the competent authority. Such engine maintenance organisation may temporarily remove the component for maintenance if this is necessary to improve access to the component, except where additional maintenance is required due to the removal.

(d)

The maintenance of components referred to in point (b)(2) of point 21.A.307 of Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 or in point (b)(2) of point 21L.A.193 of Annex Ib (Part 21 Light) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, where the component is fitted to the aircraft or is temporarily removed to improve access, shall be performed by an aircraft maintenance organisation approved in accordance with Subpart F of this Annex or with Annex II (Part-145) or Annex Vd (Part-CAO) to this Regulation, as applicable, by the certifying staff referred to in point (b)(1) of point M.A.801 of this Annex or by the pilot-owner referred to in point (b)(2) of point M.A.801 of this Annex. Component maintenance performed in accordance with this point shall not be eligible for the issuance of an EASA Form 1 and shall be subject to the aircraft release requirements provided for in point M.A.801 of this Annex.

(e)

The maintenance of components referred to in points (b)(3) to (b)(6) of point 21.A.307 of Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 or in points (b)(3) to (b)(6) of point 21L.A.193 of Annex Ib (Part 21 Light) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 shall be performed either by the organisations referred to in point (a), or performed by any person or organisation and released with a “declaration of maintenance accomplished” issued by the person or organisation performing the maintenance. The “declaration of maintenance accomplished” shall contain at least basic details of the maintenance carried out, the date on which the maintenance was completed, and the identification of the organisation or person issuing it. It shall be considered a maintenance record and equivalent to an EASA Form 1 in respect of the component undergoing maintenance.’.

ANNEX IV

In point ML.A.302 of Annex Vb (Part-ML) to Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014, point (c) is replaced by the following:

‘(c)

The AMP:

(1)	shall clearly identify the owner of the aircraft and the aircraft to which it relates, including any installed engine and propeller, as applicable;

(2)

shall include, alternatively:

(a)	the tasks or inspections contained in the applicable minimum inspection programme (MIP) referred to in point (d);

(b)	the instructions for continuing airworthiness (ICA) issued by the design approval holder (DAH);

(c)	the ICA issued by the declarant of a declaration of design compliance;

(3)

may include additional maintenance actions to those referred to in point (c)(2) or maintenance actions alternative to those referred to in point (c)(2)(b) at the proposal of the owner, CAMO or CAO, once approved or declared in accordance with point (b). Alternative maintenance actions to those referred to in point (c)(2)(b) shall not be less restrictive than those set out in the applicable MIP;

(4)	shall include all the mandatory continuing airworthiness information, such as repetitive ADs, the airworthiness limitation section (‘ALS’) of the ICAs, and specific maintenance requirements contained in the type certificate data sheet (‘TCDS’);

(5)

shall identify any additional maintenance tasks to be performed because of the specific aircraft type, aircraft configuration and type and specificity of operation, whereas the following elements shall be taken into consideration as a minimum:

(a)	specific installed equipment and modifications of the aircraft;

(b)	repairs carried out in the aircraft;

(c)	life-limited components and flight-safety-critical components;

(d)	maintenance recommendations, such as time between overhaul (‘TBO’) intervals, issued through service bulletins, service letters, and other non-mandatory service information;

(e)	applicable operational directives or requirements related to the periodic inspection of certain equipment;

(f)	special operational approvals;

(g)	use of the aircraft and operational environment;

(6)	shall identify whether the Pilot-owners are authorised to perform maintenance;

(7)	when declared by the owner, shall contain a signed statement by which the owner declares that this is the AMP for the particular aircraft registration and that he is fully responsible for its content and, in particular, for any deviations from the DAH’s recommendations;

(8)	when approved by the CAMO or CAO, shall be signed by this organisation, which shall retain records with the justification for any deviation introduced to the DAH’s recommendations;

(9)

shall be reviewed at least annually in order to assess its effectiveness, and this review shall be performed, alternatively:

(a)	in conjunction with the airworthiness review of the aircraft by the person who performs such an airworthiness review;

(b)

by the CAMO or CAO managing the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft in those cases where the review of the AMP is not performed in conjunction with an airworthiness review.

If the review shows deficiencies of the aircraft linked with deficiencies in the content of the AMP, the AMP shall be amended accordingly. In this case the person performing the review shall inform the competent authority of the Member State of registry if he does not agree with the measures amending the AMP taken by the owner, CAMO or CAO. The competent authority shall decide which amendments to the AMP are necessary, raising the corresponding findings and, if necessary, reacting in accordance with point ML.B.304.’.

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