‘credit institution’ means an undertaking the business of which consists of any of the following:

‘investment firm’ means an investment firm as defined in point (1) of Article 4(1) of Directive 2014/65/EU which is authorised under that Directive but excludes credit institutions;

‘institution’ means a credit institution authorised under Article 8 of Directive 2013/36/EU or an undertaking as referred to in Article 8a(3) thereof;

‘insurance undertaking’ means insurance undertaking as defined in point (1) of Article 13 of Directive 2009/138/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 25 November 2009 on the taking-up and pursuit of the business of Insurance and Reinsurance (Solvency II) ( 7 );

‘reinsurance undertaking’ means reinsurance undertaking as defined in point (4) of Article 13 of Directive 2009/138/EC;

‘collective investment undertaking’ or ‘CIU’ means a UCITS as defined in Article 1(2) of Directive 2009/65/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council ( 8 ) or an alternative investment fund (AIF) as defined in point (a) of Article 4(1) of Directive 2011/61/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council ( 9 );

‘public sector entity’ means a non-commercial administrative body responsible to central governments, regional governments or local authorities, or to authorities that exercise the same responsibilities as regional governments and local authorities, or a non-commercial undertaking that is owned by or set up and sponsored by central governments, regional governments or local authorities, and that has explicit guarantee arrangements, and may include self-administered bodies governed by law that are under public supervision;

‘management body’ means management body as defined in point (7) of Article 3(1) of Directive 2013/36/EU;

‘senior management’ means senior management as defined in point (9) of Article 3(1) of Directive 2013/36/EU;

‘systemic risk’ means systemic risk as defined in point (10) of Article 3(1) of Directive 2013/36/EU;

‘model risk’ means model risk as defined in point (11) of Article 3(1) of Directive 2013/36/EU;

‘originator’ means an originator as defined in point (3) of Article 2 of Regulation (EU) 2017/2402 ( 10 );

‘sponsor’ means a sponsor as defined in point (5) of Article 2 of Regulation (EU) 2017/2402;

‘original lender’ means an original lender as defined in point (20) of Article 2 of Regulation (EU) 2017/2402;

‘parent undertaking’ means:

‘subsidiary’ means:

Subsidiaries of subsidiaries shall also be considered to be subsidiaries of the undertaking that is their original parent undertaking;

‘branch’ means a place of business which forms a legally dependent part of an institution and which carries out directly all or some of the transactions inherent in the business of institutions;

‘ancillary services undertaking’ means an undertaking the principal activity of which consists of owning or managing property, managing data-processing services, or a similar activity which is ancillary to the principal activity of one or more institutions;

‘asset management company’ means an asset management company as defined in point (5) of Article 2 of Directive 2002/87/EC or an AIFM as defined in Article 4(1)(b) of Directive 2011/61/EU, including, unless otherwise provided, third-country entities that carry out similar activities and that are subject to the laws of a third country which applies supervisory and regulatory requirements at least equivalent to those applied in the Union;

‘financial holding company’ means a financial institution, the subsidiaries of which are exclusively or mainly institutions or financial institutions, and which is not a mixed financial holding company; the subsidiaries of a financial institution are mainly institutions or financial institutions where at least one of them is an institution and where more than 50 % of the financial institution's equity, consolidated assets, revenues, personnel or other indicator considered relevant by the competent authority are associated with subsidiaries that are institutions or financial institutions;

‘mixed financial holding company’ means mixed financial holding company as defined in point (15) of Article 2 of Directive 2002/87/EC;

‘mixed activity holding company’ means a parent undertaking, other than a financial holding company or an institution or a mixed financial holding company, the subsidiaries of which include at least one institution;

‘third-country insurance undertaking’ means third-country insurance undertaking as defined in point (3) of Article 13 of Directive 2009/138/EC;

‘third-country reinsurance undertaking’ means third-country reinsurance undertaking as defined in point (6) of Article 13 of Directive 2009/138/EC;

‘recognised third-country investment firm’ means a firm meeting all of the following conditions:

‘financial institution’ means an undertaking other than an institution and other than a pure industrial holding company, the principal activity of which is to acquire holdings or to pursue one or more of the activities listed in points 2 to 12 and point 15 of Annex I to Directive 2013/36/EU, including an investment firm, a financial holding company, a mixed financial holding company, an investment holding company, a payment institution within the meaning of Directive (EU) 2015/2366 of the European Parliament and of the Council ( 11 ), and an asset management company, but excluding insurance holding companies and mixed‐activity insurance holding companies as defined in points (f) and (g) of Article 212(1) of Directive 2009/138/EC;

‘financial sector entity’ means any of the following:

‘parent institution in a Member State’ means an institution in a Member State which has an institution, a financial institution or an ancillary services undertaking as a subsidiary or which holds a participation in an institution, financial institution or ancillary services undertaking, and which is not itself a subsidiary of another institution authorised in the same Member State, or of a financial holding company or mixed financial holding company set up in the same Member State;

‘EU parent institution’ means a parent institution in a Member State which is not a subsidiary of another institution authorised in any Member State, or of a financial holding company or mixed financial holding company set up in any Member State;

‘parent investment firm in a Member State’ means a parent undertaking in a Member State that is an investment firm;

‘EU parent investment firm’ means an EU parent undertaking that is an investment firm;

‘parent credit institution in a Member State’ means a parent institution in a Member State that is a credit institution;

‘EU parent credit institution’ means an EU parent institution that is a credit institution;

‘parent financial holding company in a Member State’ means a financial holding company which is not itself a subsidiary of an institution authorised in the same Member State, or of a financial holding company or mixed financial holding company set up in the same Member State;

‘EU parent financial holding company’ means a parent financial holding company in a Member State which is not a subsidiary of an institution authorised in any Member State or of another financial holding company or mixed financial holding company set up in any Member State;

‘parent mixed financial holding company in a Member State’ means a mixed financial holding company which is not itself a subsidiary of an institution authorised in the same Member State, or of a financial holding company or mixed financial holding company set up in that same Member State;

‘EU parent mixed financial holding company’ means a parent mixed financial holding company in a Member State which is not a subsidiary of an institution authorised in any Member State or of another financial holding company or mixed financial holding company set up in any Member State;

‘central counterparty’ or ‘CCP’ means a CCP as defined in point (1) of Article 2 of Regulation (EU) No 648/2012;

‘participation’ means participation within the meaning of the first sentence of Article 17 of Fourth Council Directive 78/660/EEC of 25 July 1978 on the annual accounts of certain types of companies ( 12 ), or the ownership, direct or indirect, of 20 % or more of the voting rights or capital of an undertaking;

‘qualifying holding’ means a direct or indirect holding in an undertaking which represents 10 % or more of the capital or of the voting rights or which makes it possible to exercise a significant influence over the management of that undertaking;

‘control’ means the relationship between a parent undertaking and a subsidiary, as defined in Article 1 of Directive 83/349/EEC, or the accounting standards to which an institution is subject under Regulation (EC) No 1606/2002, or a similar relationship between any natural or legal person and an undertaking;

‘close links’ means a situation in which two or more natural or legal persons are linked in any of the following ways:

‘group of connected clients’ means any of the following:

Notwithstanding points (a) and (b), where a central government has direct control over or is directly interconnected with more than one natural or legal person, the set consisting of the central government and all of the natural or legal persons directly or indirectly controlled by it in accordance with point (a), or interconnected with it in accordance with point (b), may be considered as not constituting a group of connected clients. Instead the existence of a group of connected clients formed by the central government and other natural or legal persons may be assessed separately for each of the persons directly controlled by it in accordance with point (a), or directly interconnected with it in accordance with point (b), and all of the natural and legal persons which are controlled by that person according to point (a) or interconnected with that person in accordance with point (b), including the central government. The same applies in cases of regional governments or local authorities to which Article 115(2) applies.

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Two or more natural or legal persons who fulfil the conditions set out in point (a) or (b) because of their direct exposure to the same CCP for clearing activities purposes are not considered as constituting a group of connected clients;

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‘competent authority’ means a public authority or body officially recognised by national law, which is empowered by national law to supervise institutions as part of the supervisory system in operation in the Member State concerned;

‘consolidating supervisor’ means a competent authority responsible for the exercise of supervision on a consolidated basis in accordance with Article 111 of Directive 2013/36/EU;

‘authorisation’ means an instrument issued in any form by the authorities by which the right to carry out the business is granted;

‘home Member State’ means the Member State in which an institution has been granted authorisation;

‘host Member State’ means the Member State in which an institution has a branch or in which it provides services;

‘ESCB central banks’ means the national central banks that are members of the European System of Central Banks (ESCB), and the European Central Bank (ECB);

‘central banks’ means the ESCB central banks and the central banks of third countries;

‘consolidated situation’ means the situation that results from applying the requirements of this Regulation in accordance with Part One, Title II, Chapter 2 to an institution as if that institution formed, together with one or more other entities, a single institution;

‘consolidated basis’ means on the basis of the consolidated situation;

‘sub-consolidated basis’ means on the basis of the consolidated situation of a parent institution, financial holding company or mixed financial holding company, excluding a sub-group of entities, or on the basis of the consolidated situation of a parent institution, financial holding company or mixed financial holding company that is not the ultimate parent institution, financial holding company or mixed financial holding company;

‘financial instrument’ means any of the following:

The instruments referred to in points (a), (b) and (c) are only financial instruments if their value is derived from the price of an underlying financial instrument or another underlying item, a rate, or an index;

‘initial capital’ means the amounts and types of own funds specified in Article 12 of Directive 2013/36/EU;

‘operational risk’ means the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events, and includes legal risk;

‘dilution risk’ means the risk that an amount receivable is reduced through cash or non-cash credits to the obligor;

‘probability of default’ or ‘PD’ means the probability of default of a counterparty over a one-year period;

‘loss given default’ or ‘LGD’ means the ratio of the loss on an exposure due to the default of a counterparty to the amount outstanding at default;

‘conversion factor’ means the ratio of the currently undrawn amount of a commitment that could be drawn and that would therefore be outstanding at default to the currently undrawn amount of the commitment, the extent of the commitment being determined by the advised limit, unless the unadvised limit is higher;

‘credit risk mitigation’ means a technique used by an institution to reduce the credit risk associated with an exposure or exposures which that institution continues to hold;

‘funded credit protection’ means a technique of credit risk mitigation where the reduction of the credit risk on the exposure of an institution derives from the right of that institution, in the event of the default of the counterparty or on the occurrence of other specified credit events relating to the counterparty, to liquidate, or to obtain transfer or appropriation of, or to retain certain assets or amounts, or to reduce the amount of the exposure to, or to replace it with, the amount of the difference between the amount of the exposure and the amount of a claim on the institution;

‘unfunded credit protection’ means a technique of credit risk mitigation where the reduction of the credit risk on the exposure of an institution derives from the obligation of a third party to pay an amount in the event of the default of the borrower or the occurrence of other specified credit events;

‘cash assimilated instrument’ means a certificate of deposit, a bond, including a covered bond, or any other non‐subordinated instrument, which has been issued by an institution or an investment firm, for which the institution or investment firm has already received full payment and which is to be unconditionally reimbursed by the institution or investment firm at its nominal value;

‘securitisation’ means a securitisation as defined in point (1) of Article 2 of Regulation (EU) 2017/2402;

‘securitisation position’ means a securitisation position as defined in point (19) of Article 2 of Regulation (EU) 2017/2402;

‘resecuritisation’ means a resecuritisation as defined in point (4) of Article 2 of Regulation (EU) 2017/2402;

‘re-securitisation position’ means an exposure to a re-securitisation;

‘credit enhancement’ means a contractual arrangement whereby the credit quality of a position in a securitisation is improved in relation to what it would have been if the enhancement had not been provided, including the enhancement provided by more junior tranches in the securitisation and other types of credit protection;

‘securitisation special purpose entity’ or ‘SSPE’ means a securitisation special purpose entity or SSPE as defined in point (2) of Article 2 of Regulation (EU) 2017/2402;

‘tranche’ means a tranche as defined in point (6) of Article 2 of Regulation (EU) 2017/2402;

‘marking to market’ means the valuation of positions at readily available close out prices that are sourced independently, including exchange prices, screen prices or quotes from several independent reputable brokers;

‘marking to model’ means any valuation which has to be benchmarked, extrapolated or otherwise calculated from one or more market inputs;

‘independent price verification’ means a process by which market prices or marking to model inputs are regularly verified for accuracy and independence;

‘eligible capital’ means the following:

‘recognised exchange’ means an exchange which meets all of the following conditions:

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‘discretionary pension benefits’ means enhanced pension benefits granted on a discretionary basis by an institution to an employee as part of that employee's variable remuneration package, which do not include accrued benefits granted to an employee under the terms of the company pension scheme;

‘mortgage lending value’ means the value of immovable property as determined by a prudent assessment of the future marketability of the property taking into account long-term sustainable aspects of the property, the normal and local market conditions, the current use and alternative appropriate uses of the property;

‘residential property’ means a residence which is occupied by the owner or the lessee of the residence, including the right to inhabit an apartment in housing cooperatives located in Sweden;

‘market value’ means, for the purposes of immovable property, the estimated amount for which the property should exchange on the date of valuation between a willing buyer and a willing seller in an arm's-length transaction after proper marketing wherein the parties had each acted knowledgeably, prudently and without compulsion;

‘applicable accounting framework’ means the accounting standards to which the institution is subject under Regulation (EC) No 1606/2002 or Directive 86/635/EEC;

‘one-year default rate’ means the ratio between the number of defaults occurred during a period that starts from one year prior to a date T and the number of obligors assigned to this grade or pool one year prior to that date;

‘speculative immovable property financing’ means loans for the purposes of the acquisition of or development or construction on land in relation to immovable property, or of and in relation to such property, with the intention of reselling for profit;

‘trade finance’ means financing, including guarantees, connected to the exchange of goods and services through financial products of fixed short-term maturity, generally of less than one year, without automatic rollover;

‘officially supported export credits’ means loans or credits to finance the export of goods and services for which an official export credit agency provides guarantees, insurance or direct financing;

‘repurchase agreement’ and ‘reverse repurchase agreement’ mean any agreement in which an institution or its counterparty transfers securities or commodities or guaranteed rights relating to title to securities or commodities where that guarantee is issued by a recognised exchange which holds the rights to the securities or commodities and the agreement does not allow an institution to transfer or pledge a particular security or commodity to more than one counterparty at one time, subject to a commitment to repurchase them, or substituted securities or commodities of the same description at a specified price on a future date specified, or to be specified, by the transferor, being a repurchase agreement for the institution selling the securities or commodities and a reverse repurchase agreement for the institution buying them;

‘repurchase transaction’ means any transaction governed by a repurchase agreement or a reverse repurchase agreement;

‘simple repurchase agreement’ means a repurchase transaction of a single asset, or of similar, non-complex assets, as opposed to a basket of assets;

‘positions held with trading intent’ means any of the following:

‘trading book’ means all positions in financial instruments and commodities held by an institution either with trading intent or to hedge positions held with trading intent in accordance with Article 104;

‘multilateral trading facility’ means multilateral trading facility as defined in point 15 of Article 4 of Directive 2004/39/EC;

‘qualifying central counterparty’ or ‘QCCP’ means a central counterparty that has been either authorised in accordance with Article 14 of Regulation (EU) No 648/2012 or recognised in accordance with Article 25 of that Regulation;

‘default fund’ means a fund established by a CCP in accordance with Article 42 of Regulation (EU) No 648/2012 and used in accordance with Article 45 of that Regulation;

‘pre-funded contribution to the default fund of a CCP’ means a contribution to the default fund of a CCP that is paid in by an institution;

‘trade exposure’ means a current exposure, including a variation margin due to the clearing member but not yet received, and any potential future exposure of a clearing member or a client, to a CCP arising from contracts and transactions listed in points (a), (b) and (c) of Article 301(1), as well as initial margin;

‘regulated market’ means regulated market as defined in point (14) of Article 4 of Directive 2004/39/EC;

‘leverage’ means the relative size of an institution's assets, off-balance sheet obligations and contingent obligations to pay or to deliver or to provide collateral, including obligations from received funding, made commitments, derivatives or repurchase agreements, but excluding obligations which can only be enforced during the liquidation of an institution, compared to that institution's own funds;

‘risk of excessive leverage’ means the risk resulting from an institution's vulnerability due to leverage or contingent leverage that may require unintended corrective measures to its business plan, including distressed selling of assets which might result in losses or in valuation adjustments to its remaining assets;

‘credit risk adjustment’ means the amount of specific and general loan loss provision for credit risks that has been recognised in the financial statements of the institution in accordance with the applicable accounting framework;

‘internal hedge’ means a position that materially offsets the component risk elements between a trading book position and one or more non-trading book positions or between two trading desks;

‘reference obligation’ means an obligation used for the purposes of determining the cash settlement value of a credit derivative;

‘external credit assessment institution’ or ‘ECAI’ means a credit rating agency that is registered or certified in accordance with Regulation (EC) No 1060/2009 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 16 September 2009 on credit rating agencies ( 13 ) or a central bank issuing credit ratings which are exempt from the application of Regulation (EC) No 1060/2009;

‘nominated ECAI’ means an ECAI nominated by an institution;

‘accumulated other comprehensive income’ has the same meaning as under International Accounting Standard (IAS) 1, as applicable under Regulation (EC) No 1606/2002;

‘basic own funds’ means basic own funds within the meaning of Article 88 of Directive 2009/138/EC;

‘Tier 1 own-fund insurance items’ means basic own-fund items of undertakings subject to the requirements of Directive 2009/138/EC where those items are classified in Tier 1 within the meaning of Directive 2009/138/EC in accordance with Article 94(1) of that Directive;

‘additional Tier 1 own-fund insurance items’ means basic own-fund items of undertakings subject to the requirements of Directive 2009/138/EC where those items are classified in Tier 1 within the meaning of Directive 2009/138/EC in accordance with Article 94(1) of that Directive and the inclusion of those items is limited by the delegated acts adopted in accordance with Article 99 of that Directive;

‘Tier 2 own-fund insurance items’ means basic own-fund items of undertakings subject to the requirements of Directive 2009/138/EC where those items are classified in Tier 2 within the meaning of Directive 2009/138/EC in accordance with Article 94(2) of that Directive;

‘Tier 3 own-fund insurance items’ means basic own-fund insurance items of undertakings subject to the requirements of Directive 2009/138/EC where those items are classified in Tier 3 within the meaning of Directive 2009/138/EC in accordance with Article 94(3) of that Directive;

‘deferred tax assets’ has the same meaning as under the applicable accounting framework;

‘deferred tax assets that rely on future profitability’ means deferred tax assets the future value of which may be realised only in the event the institution generates taxable profit in the future;

‘deferred tax liabilities’ has the same meaning as under the applicable accounting framework;

‘defined benefit pension fund assets’ means the assets of a defined pension fund or plan, as applicable, calculated after they have been reduced by the amount of obligations under the same fund or plan;

‘distributions’ means the payment of dividends or interest in any form;

‘financial undertaking’ has the same meaning as under points (25)(b) and (d) of Article 13 of Directive 2009/138/EC;

‘funds for general banking risk’ has the same meaning as under Article 38 of Directive 86/635/EEC;

‘goodwill’ has the same meaning as under the applicable accounting framework;

‘indirect holding’ means any exposure to an intermediate entity that has an exposure to capital instruments issued by a financial sector entity where, in the event the capital instruments issued by the financial sector entity were permanently written off, the loss that the institution would incur as a result would not be materially different from the loss the institution would incur from a direct holding of those capital instruments issued by the financial sector entity;

‘intangible assets’ has the same meaning as under the applicable accounting framework and includes goodwill;

‘other capital instruments’ means capital instruments issued by financial sector entities that do not qualify as Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1 or Tier 2 instruments or Tier 1 own-fund insurance items, additional Tier 1 own-fund insurance items, Tier 2 own-fund insurance items or Tier 3 own-fund insurance items;

‘other reserves’ means reserves within the meaning of the applicable accounting framework that are required to be disclosed under the applicable accounting standard, excluding any amounts already included in accumulated other comprehensive income or retained earnings;

‘own funds’ means the sum of Tier 1 capital and Tier 2 capital;

‘own funds instruments’ means capital instruments issued by the institution that qualify as Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1 or Tier 2 instruments;

‘minority interest’ means the amount of Common Equity Tier 1 capital of a subsidiary of an institution that is attributable to natural or legal persons other than those included in the prudential scope of consolidation of the institution;

‘profit’ has the same meaning as under the applicable accounting framework;

‘reciprocal cross holding’ means a holding by an institution of the own funds instruments or other capital instruments issued by financial sector entities where those entities also hold own funds instruments issued by the institution;

‘retained earnings’ means profits and losses brought forward as a result of the final application of profit or loss under the applicable accounting framework;

‘share premium account’ has the same meaning as under the applicable accounting framework;

‘temporary differences’ has the same meaning as under the applicable accounting framework;

‘synthetic holding’ means an investment by an institution in a financial instrument the value of which is directly linked to the value of the capital instruments issued by a financial sector entity;

‘cross-guarantee scheme’ means a scheme that meets all the following conditions:

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‘distributable items’ means the amount of the profits at the end of the last financial year plus any profits brought forward and reserves available for that purpose, before distributions to holders of own funds instruments, less any losses brought forward, any profits which are non-distributable pursuant to Union or national law or the institution's by-laws and any sums placed in non-distributable reserves in accordance with national law or the statutes of the institution, in each case with respect to the specific category of own funds instruments to which Union or national law, institutions' by-laws, or statutes relate; such profits, losses and reserves being determined on the basis of the individual accounts of the institution and not on the basis of the consolidated accounts;

‘servicer’ means a servicer as defined in point (13) of Article 2 of Regulation (EU) 2017/2402;

‘resolution authority’ means a resolution authority as defined in point (18) of Article 2(1) of Directive 2014/59/EU;

‘resolution entity’ means a resolution entity as defined in point (83a) of Article 2(1) of Directive 2014/59/EU;

‘resolution group’ means a resolution group as defined in point (83b) of Article 2(1) of Directive 2014/59/EU;

‘global systemically important institution’ or ‘G-SII’ means a G-SII that has been identified in accordance with Article 131(1) and (2) of Directive 2013/36/EU;

‘non-EU global systemically important institution’ or ‘non-EU G-SII’ means a global systemically important banking group or a bank (G-SIBs) that is not a G-SII and that is included in the list of G-SIBs published by the Financial Stability Board, as regularly updated;

‘material subsidiary’ means a subsidiary that on an individual or consolidated basis meets any of the following conditions:

for the purpose of determining the material subsidiary, where Article 21b(2) of Directive 2013/36/EU applies, the two intermediate EU parent undertakings shall count as a single subsidiary on the basis of their consolidated situation;

‘G-SII entity’ means an entity with legal personality that is a G-SII or is part of a G-SII or of a non-EU G-SII;

‘bail-in tool’ means a bail-in tool as defined in point (57) of Article 2(1) of Directive 2014/59/EU;

‘group’ means a group of undertakings of which at least one is an institution and which consists of a parent undertaking and its subsidiaries, or of undertakings that are related to each other as set out in Article 22 of Directive 2013/34/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council ( 14 );

‘securities financing transaction’ means a repurchase transaction, a securities or commodities lending or borrowing transaction, or a margin lending transaction;

‘initial margin’ or ‘IM’ means any collateral, other than variation margin, collected from or posted to an entity to cover the current and potential future exposure of a transaction or of a portfolio of transactions in the period needed to liquidate those transactions, or to re-hedge their market risk, following the default of the counterparty to the transaction or portfolio of transactions;

‘market risk’ means the risk of losses arising from movements in market prices, including in foreign exchange rates or commodity prices;

‘foreign exchange risk’ means the risk of losses arising from movements in foreign exchange rates;

‘commodity risk’ means the risk of losses arising from movements in commodity prices;

‘trading desk’ means a well-identified group of dealers set up by the institution to jointly manage a portfolio of trading book positions in accordance with a well-defined and consistent business strategy and operating under the same risk management structure;

‘small and non-complex institution’ means an institution that meets all the following conditions:

‘large institution’ means an institution that meets any of the following conditions:

‘large subsidiary’ means a subsidiary that qualifies as a large institution;

‘non-listed institution’ means an institution that has not issued securities that are admitted to trading on a regulated market of any Member State, within the meaning of point (21) of Article 4(1) of Directive 2014/65/EU;

‘financial report’ means, for the purposes of Part Eight, a financial report within the meaning of Articles 4 and 5 of Directive 2004/109/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council ( 15 );

‘commodity and emission allowance dealer’ means an undertaking the main business of which consists exclusively of the provision of investment services or activities in relation to commodity derivatives or commodity derivative contracts referred to in points (5), (6), (7), (9) and (10), derivatives of emission allowances referred to in point (4), or emission allowances referred to in point (11) of Section C of Annex I to Directive 2014/65/EU.

institutions which are also authorised in accordance with Article 14 of Regulation (EU) No 648/2012;

institutions which are also authorised in accordance with Article 16 and point (a) of Article 54(2) of Regulation (EU) No 909/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council ( 16 ), provided that they do not perform any significant maturity transformations; and

institutions which are designated in accordance with point (b) of Article 54(2) of Regulation (EU) No 909/2014, provided that:

there is no current or foreseen material practical or legal impediment to the prompt transfer of own funds or repayment of liabilities by its parent undertaking;

either the parent undertaking satisfies the competent authority regarding the prudent management of the subsidiary and has declared, with the permission of the competent authority, that it guarantees the commitments entered into by the subsidiary, or the risks in the subsidiary are of negligible interest;

the risk evaluation, measurement and control procedures of the parent undertaking cover the subsidiary;

the parent undertaking holds more than 50 % of the voting rights attached to shares in the capital of the subsidiary or has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the members of the management body of the subsidiary.

there is no current or foreseen material practical or legal impediment to the prompt transfer of own funds or repayment of liabilities to the parent institution in a Member State;

the risk evaluation, measurement and control procedures relevant for consolidated supervision cover the parent institution in a Member State.

the parent institution on a consolidated basis or a subsidiary institution on a sub-consolidated basis complies with the obligations laid down in Part Six;

the parent institution on a consolidated basis or the subsidiary institution on a sub-consolidated basis monitors and has oversight at all times over the liquidity positions of all institutions within the group or sub-group, that are subject to the waiver, monitors and has oversight at all times over the funding positions of all institutions within the group or sub-group where the net stable funding ratio (NSFR) requirement set out in Title IV of Part Six is waived, and ensures a sufficient level of liquidity, and of stable funding where the NSFR requirement set out in Title IV of Part Six is waived, for all of those institutions;

the institutions have entered into contracts that, to the satisfaction of the competent authorities, provide for the free movement of funds between them to enable them to meet their individual and joint obligations as they become due;

there is no current or foreseen material practical or legal impediment to the fulfilment of the contracts referred to in (c).

their assessment of the compliance of the organisation and of the treatment of liquidity risk with the conditions set out in Article 86 of Directive 2013/36/EU across the single liquidity sub-group;

the distribution of amounts, location and ownership of the required liquid assets to be held within the single liquidity sub-group, where the liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) requirement as laid down in the delegated act referred to in Article 460(1) is waived, and the distribution of amounts and location of available stable funding within the single liquidity sub-group, where the NSFR requirement set out in Title IV of Part Six is waived;

the determination of minimum amounts of liquid assets to be held by institutions for which the application of the LCR requirement as laid down in the delegated act referred to in Article 460(1) is waived and the determination of minimum amounts of available stable funding to be held by institutions for which the application of the NSFR requirement set out in Title IV of Part Six is waived;

the need for stricter parameters than those set out in Part Six;

unrestricted sharing of complete information between the competent authorities;

a full understanding of the implications of such a waiver.

the commitments of the central body and affiliated institutions are joint and several liabilities or the commitments of its affiliated institutions are entirely guaranteed by the central body;

the solvency and liquidity of the central body and of all the affiliated institutions are monitored as a whole on the basis of consolidated accounts of these institutions;

the management of the central body is empowered to issue instructions to the management of the affiliated institutions.

a financial holding company or mixed financial holding company approved in accordance with Article 21a of Directive 2013/36/EU;

a designated institution controlled by a parent financial holding company or parent mixed financial holding company where such a parent is not subject to approval in accordance with Article 21a(4) of Directive 2013/36/EU;

a financial holding company, mixed financial holding company or institution designated in accordance with point (d) of Article 21a(6) of Directive 2013/36/EU.

where, in the opinion of the competent authorities, an institution exercises a significant influence over one or more institutions or financial institutions, but without holding a participation or other capital ties in those institutions; and

where two or more institutions or financial institutions are placed under single management other than pursuant to a contract, clauses of their memoranda or articles of association.

the undertaking is not an insurance undertaking, a third-country insurance undertaking, a reinsurance undertaking, a third-country reinsurance undertaking, an insurance holding company or an undertaking excluded from the scope of Directive 2009/138/EC in accordance with Article 4 of that Directive;

there is a substantial risk that the institution decides to provide financial support to that undertaking in stressed conditions, in the absence of, or in excess of any contractual obligations to provide such support.

EUR 10 million;

1 % of the total amount of assets and off-balance sheet items of the parent undertaking or the undertaking that holds the participation.

where the undertaking concerned is situated in a third country where there are legal impediments to the transfer of the necessary information;

where the undertaking concerned is of negligible interest only with respect to the objectives of monitoring institutions;

where, in the opinion of the competent authorities responsible for exercising supervision on a consolidated basis, the consolidation of the financial situation of the undertaking concerned would be inappropriate or misleading as far as the objectives of the supervision of institutions are concerned.

in the case of applications for the permissions referred to in Article 143(1), Article 151(4) and (9), Article 283, Article 312(2) and Article363 respectively submitted by an EU parent institution and its subsidiaries, or jointly by the subsidiaries of an EU parent financial holding company or EU parent mixed financial holding company, to decide whether or not to grant the permission sought and to determine the terms and conditions, if any, to which such permission should be subject;

for the purposes of determining whether the criteria for a specific intragroup treatment as referred to in Article 422(9) and Article 425(5) complemented by the EBA regulatory technical standards referred to in Article 422(10) and Article 425(6) are met.

the application referred to in point (a) of paragraph 1;

the assessment of the criteria and the determination of the specific treatment referred to in point (b) of paragraph 1.

on the date of receipt of the complete application referred to in point (a) of paragraph 1 by the consolidating supervisor. The consolidating supervisor shall forward the complete application to the other competent authorities without delay;

on the date of receipt by competent authorities of a report prepared by the consolidating supervisor analysing intragroup commitments within the group.

capital instruments, provided that the conditions laid down in Article 28 or, where applicable, Article 29 are met;

share premium accounts related to the instruments referred to in point (a);

retained earnings;

accumulated other comprehensive income;

other reserves;

funds for general banking risk.

those profits have been verified by persons independent of the institution that are responsible for the auditing of the accounts of that institution;

the institution has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the competent authority that any foreseeable charge or dividend has been deducted from the amount of those profits.

the institution is of a type that is defined under applicable national law and which competent authorities consider to qualify as any of the following:

the conditions laid down in Articles 28 or, where applicable, Article 29, are met.

the instruments are issued directly by the institution with the prior approval of the owners of the institution or, where permitted under applicable national law, the management body of the institution;

the instruments are fully paid up and the acquisition of ownership of those instruments is not funded directly or indirectly by the institution;

the instruments meet all the following conditions as regards their classification:

the instruments are clearly and separately disclosed on the balance sheet in the financial statements of the institution;

the instruments are perpetual;

the principal amount of the instruments may not be reduced or repaid, except in either of the following cases:

the provisions governing the instruments do not indicate expressly or implicitly that the principal amount of the instruments would or might be reduced or repaid other than in the liquidation of the institution, and the institution does not otherwise provide such an indication prior to or at issuance of the instruments, except in the case of instruments referred to in Article 27 where the refusal by the institution to redeem such instruments is prohibited under applicable national law;

the instruments meet the following conditions as regards distributions:

compared to all the capital instruments issued by the institution, the instruments absorb the first and proportionately greatest share of losses as they occur, and each instrument absorbs losses to the same degree as all other Common Equity Tier 1 instruments;

the instruments rank below all other claims in the event of insolvency or liquidation of the institution;

the instruments entitle their owners to a claim on the residual assets of the institution, which, in the event of its liquidation and after the payment of all senior claims, is proportionate to the amount of such instruments issued and is not fixed or subject to a cap, except in the case of the capital instruments referred to in Article 27;

the instruments are neither secured nor subject to a guarantee that enhances the seniority of the claim by any of the following:

the instruments are not subject to any arrangement, contractual or otherwise, that enhances the seniority of claims under the instruments in insolvency or liquidation.

the applicable forms and nature of indirect funding of own funds instruments;

whether and when multiple distributions would constitute a disproportionate drag on own funds;

the meaning of preferential distributions.

except where prohibited under applicable national law, the institution shall be able to refuse the redemption of the instruments;

where the refusal by the institution of the redemption of instruments is prohibited under applicable national law, the provisions governing the instruments shall give the institution the ability to limit their redemption;

refusal to redeem the instruments, or the limitation of the redemption of the instruments where applicable, may not constitute an event of default of the institution.

the capital instruments are issued after 1 January 2014;

the capital instruments are considered State aid by the Commission;

the capital instruments are issued within the context of recapitalisation measures pursuant to State aid- rules existing at the time;

the capital instruments are fully subscribed and held by the State or a relevant public authority or public-owned entity;

the capital instruments are able to absorb losses;

except for the capital instruments referred to in Article 27, in the event of liquidation, the capital instruments entitle their owners to a claim on the residual assets of the institution after the payment of all senior claims;

there are adequate exit mechanisms of the State or, where applicable, a relevant public authority or public-owned entity;

the competent authority has granted its prior permission and has published its decision together with an explanation of that decision.

such an increase associated with future margin income that results in a gain on sale for the institution;

where the institution is the originator of a securitisation, net gains that arise from the capitalisation of future income from the securitised assets that provide credit enhancement to positions in the securitisation.

the fair value reserves related to gains or losses on cash flow hedges of financial instruments that are not valued at fair value, including projected cash flows;

gains or losses on liabilities of the institution that are valued at fair value that result from changes in the own credit standing of the institution;

fair value gains and losses on derivative liabilities of the institution that result from changes in the own credit risk of the institution.

the liabilities are in the form of bonds as referred to in Article 52(4) of Directive 2009/65/EC;

the changes in the value of the institution's assets and liabilities are due to the same changes in the institution's own credit standing;

there is a close correspondence between the value of the bonds referred to in point (a) and the value of the institution's assets;

it is possible to redeem the mortgage loans by buying back the bonds financing the mortgage loans at market or nominal value.

losses for the current financial year;

intangible assets with the exception of prudently valued software assets the value of which is not negatively affected by resolution, insolvency or liquidation of the institution;

deferred tax assets that rely on future profitability;

for institutions calculating risk-weighted exposure amounts using the Internal Ratings Based Approach (the IRB Approach), negative amounts resulting from the calculation of expected loss amounts laid down in Articles 158 and 159;

defined benefit pension fund assets on the balance sheet of the institution;

direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by an institution of own Common Equity Tier 1 instruments, including own Common Equity Tier 1 instruments that an institution is under an actual or contingent obligation to purchase by virtue of an existing contractual obligation;

direct, indirect and synthetic holdings of the Common Equity Tier 1 instruments of financial sector entities where those entities have a reciprocal cross holding with the institution that the competent authority considers to have been designed to inflate artificially the own funds of the institution;

the applicable amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of Common Equity Tier 1 instruments of financial sector entities where the institution does not have a significant investment in those entities;

the applicable amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1 instruments of financial sector entities where the institution has a significant investment in those entities;

the amount of items required to be deducted from Additional Tier 1 items pursuant to Article 56 that exceeds the Additional Tier 1 items of the institution;

the exposure amount of the following items which qualify for a risk weight of 1 250  %, where the institution deducts that exposure amount from the amount of Common Equity Tier 1 items as an alternative to applying a risk weight of 1 250  %:

▼M5

▼C2

any tax charge relating to Common Equity Tier 1 items foreseeable at the moment of its calculation, except where the institution suitably adjusts the amount of Common Equity Tier 1 items insofar as such tax charges reduce the amount up to which those items may be used to cover risks or losses;

the applicable amount of insufficient coverage for non-performing exposures;

for a minimum value commitment referred to in Article 132c(2), any amount by which the current market value of the units or shares in CIUs underlying the minimum value commitment falls short of the present value of the minimum value commitment and for which the institution has not already recognised a reduction of Common Equity Tier 1 items.

Common Equity Tier 1 items;

Additional Tier 1 items;

Tier 2 items.

the entity has a legally enforceable right under applicable national law to set off those current tax assets against current tax liabilities;

the deferred tax assets and the deferred tax liabilities relate to taxes levied by the same tax authority and on the same taxable entity.

deferred tax assets that rely on future profitability and arise from temporary differences that are not deducted in accordance with Article 48(1);

all other deferred tax assets that rely on future profitability.

overpayments of tax by the institution for the current year;

current year tax losses of the institution carried back to previous years that give rise to a claim on, or a receivable from, a central government, regional government or local tax authority.

they are automatically and mandatorily replaced without delay with a tax credit in the event that the institution reports a loss when the annual financial statements of the institution are formally approved, or in the event of liquidation or insolvency of the institution;

an institution is able under the applicable national tax law to offset a tax credit referred to in point (a) against any tax liability of the institution or any other undertaking included in the same consolidation as the institution for tax purposes under that law or any other undertaking subject to the supervision on a consolidated basis in accordance with Chapter 2 of Title II of Part One;

where the amount of tax credits referred to in point (b) exceeds the tax liabilities referred to in that point, any such excess is replaced without delay with a direct claim on the central government of the Member State in which the institution is incorporated.

the amount of any associated deferred tax liability which could be extinguished if the assets became impaired or were derecognised under the applicable accounting framework;

the amount of assets in the defined benefit pension fund which the institution has an unrestricted ability to use, provided that the institution has received the prior permission of the competent authority.

the aggregate amount by which the direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1 and Tier 2 instruments of financial sector entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment exceeds 10 % of the aggregate amount of Common Equity Tier 1 items of the institution calculated after applying the following to Common Equity Tier 1 items:

the amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1 instruments of those financial sector entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment divided by the aggregate amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1 and Tier 2 instruments of those financial sector entities.

the amount of holdings required to be deducted pursuant to paragraph 1;

the proportion of the aggregate amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1 instruments of financial sector entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment represented by each Common Equity Tier 1 instrument held.

the amount of holdings required to be risk weighted pursuant to paragraph 4;

the proportion resulting from the calculation in point (b) of paragraph 3.

a debt instrument, including a debt security, a loan, an advance and a demand deposit;

a loan commitment given, a financial guarantee given or any other commitment given, irrespective of whether it is revocable or irrevocable, with the exception of undrawn credit facilities that may be cancelled unconditionally at any time and without notice, or that effectively provide for automatic cancellation due to deterioration in the borrower's creditworthiness.

an exposure in respect of which a default is considered to have occurred in accordance with Article 178;

an exposure which is considered to be impaired in accordance with the applicable accounting framework;

an exposure under probation pursuant to paragraph 7, where additional forbearance measures are granted or where the exposure becomes more than 30 days past due;

an exposure in the form of a commitment that, were it drawn down or otherwise used, would likely not be paid back in full without realisation of collateral;

an exposure in form of a financial guarantee that is likely to be called by the guaranteed party, including where the underlying guaranteed exposure meets the criteria to be considered as non-performing.

the exposure meets the exit criteria applied by the institution for the discontinuation of the classification as impaired in accordance with the applicable accounting framework and of the classification as defaulted in accordance with Article 178;

the situation of the obligor has improved to the extent that the institution is satisfied that full and timely repayment is likely to be made;

the obligor does not have any amount past due by more than 90 days.

the exposures have ceased to be in a situation that would lead to their classification as non-performing under paragraph 3;

at least one year has passed since the date on which the forbearance measures were granted and the date on which the exposures were classified as non-performing, whichever is later;

there is no past-due amount following the forbearance measures and the institution, on the basis of the analysis of the obligor's financial situation, is satisfied about the likelihood of the full and timely repayment of the exposure.

at least two years have passed since the date on which the exposure subject to forbearance measures was re-classified as performing;

regular and timely payments have been made during at least half of the period that the exposure would be under probation, leading to the payment of a substantial aggregate amount of principal or interest;

none of the exposures to the obligor is more than 30 days past due.

a modification of the terms and conditions of a debt obligation, where such modification would not have been granted had the obligor not experienced difficulties in meeting its financial commitments;

a total or partial refinancing of a debt obligation, where such refinancing would not have been granted had the obligor not experienced difficulties in meeting its financial commitments.

new contract terms are more favourable to the obligor than the previous contract terms, where the obligor is experiencing or is likely to experience difficulties in meeting its financial commitments;

new contract terms are more favourable to the obligor than contract terms offered by the same institution to obligors with a similar risk profile at that time, where the obligor is experiencing or is likely to experience difficulties in meeting its financial commitments;

the exposure under the initial contract terms was classified as non-performing before the modification to the contract terms or would have been classified as non-performing in the absence of modification to the contract terms;

the measure results in a total or partial cancellation of the debt obligation;

the institution approves the exercise of clauses that enable the obligor to modify the terms of the contract and the exposure was classified as non-performing before the exercise of those clauses, or would be classified as non-performing were those clauses not exercised;

at or close to the time of the granting of debt, the obligor made payments of principal or interest on another debt obligation with the same institution, which was classified as a non-performing exposure or would have been classified as non-performing in the absence of those payments;

the modification to the contract terms involves repayments made by taking possession of collateral, where such modification constitutes a concession.

the initial contract was past due by more than 30 days at least once during the three months prior to its modification or would be more than 30 days past due without modification;

at or close to the time of concluding the credit agreement, the obligor made payments of principal or interest on another debt obligation with the same institution that was past due by 30 days at least once during the three months prior to the granting of new debt;

the institution approves the exercise of clauses that enable the obligor to change the terms of the contract, and the exposure is 30 days past due or would be 30 days past due were those clauses not exercised.

the sum of:

the sum of the following items provided they relate to the same non-performing exposure:

0,35 for the unsecured part of a non-performing exposure to be applied during the period between the first and the last day of the third year following its classification as non-performing;

1 for the unsecured part of a non-performing exposure to be applied as of the first day of the fourth year following its classification as non-performing.

0,25 for the secured part of a non-performing exposure to be applied during the period between the first and the last day of the fourth year following its classification as non-performing;

0,35 for the secured part of a non-performing exposure to be applied during the period between the first and the last day of the fifth year following its classification as non-performing;

0,55 for the secured part of a non-performing exposure to be applied during the period between the first and the last day of the sixth year following its classification as non-performing;

0,70 for the part of a non-performing exposure secured by immovable property pursuant to Title II of Part Three or that is a residential loan guaranteed by an eligible protection provider as referred to in Article 201, to be applied during the period between the first and the last day of the seventh year following its classification as non-performing;

0,80 for the part of a non-performing exposure secured by other funded or unfunded credit protection pursuant to Title II of Part Three to be applied during the period between the first and the last day of the seventh year following its classification as non-performing;

0,80 for the part of a non-performing exposure secured by immovable property pursuant to Title II of Part Three or that is a residential loan guaranteed by an eligible protection provider as referred to in Article 201, to be applied during the period between the first and the last day of the eighth year following its classification as non-performing;

1 for the part of a non-performing exposure secured by other funded or unfunded credit protection pursuant to Title II of Part Three to be applied as of the first day of the eighth year following its classification as non-performing;

0,85 for the part of a non-performing exposure secured by immovable property pursuant to Title II of Part Three or that is a residential loan guaranteed by an eligible protection provider as referred to in Article 201, to be applied during the period between the first and the last day of the ninth year following its classification as non-performing;

1 for the part of a non-performing exposure secured by immovable property pursuant to Title II of Part Three or that is a residential loan guaranteed by an eligible protection provider as referred to in Article 201, to be applied as of the first day of the tenth year following its classification as non-performing.

0 for the secured part of the non-performing exposure to be applied during the period between one year and seven years following its classification as non-performing; and

1 for the secured part of the non-performing exposure to be applied as of the first day of the eighth year following its classification as non-performing.

deferred tax assets that are dependent on future profitability and arise from temporary differences, and in aggregate are equal to or less than 10 % of the Common Equity Tier 1 items of the institution calculated after applying the following:

where an institution has a significant investment in a financial sector entity, the direct, indirect and synthetic holdings of that institution of the Common Equity Tier 1 instruments of those entities that in aggregate are equal to or less than 10 % of the Common Equity Tier 1 items of the institution calculated after applying the following:

the residual amount of Common Equity Tier 1 items after applying the adjustments and deductions in Articles 32 to 36 in full and without applying the threshold exemptions specified in this Article;

17,65 %.

the amount of deferred tax assets that are dependent on future profitability and arise from temporary differences, and in aggregate are equal to or less than 10 % of the Common Equity Tier 1 items of the institution;

the sum of the following:

the financial sector entity is an insurance undertaking, a re-insurance undertaking or an insurance holding company;

that insurance undertaking, re-insurance undertaking or insurance holding company is included in the same supplementary supervision under Directive 2002/87/EC as the parent institution, parent financial holding company or parent mixed financial holding company or institution that has the holding;

the institution has received the prior permission of the competent authorities;

prior to granting the permission referred to in point (c), and on a continuing basis, the competent authorities are satisfied that the level of integrated management, risk management and internal control regarding the entities that would be included in the scope of consolidation under method 1, 2 or 3 is adequate;

the holdings in the entity belong to one of the following:

where an institution has a holding in another institution and the conditions referred to in points (i) to (v) are met:

where a regional credit institution has a holding in its central or another regional credit institution and the conditions laid down in points (a)(i) to (v) are met.

the instruments are directly issued by an institution and fully paid up;

the instruments are not owned by any of the following:

▼C2

the acquisition of ownership of the instruments is not funded directly or indirectly by the institution;

the instruments rank below Tier 2 instruments in the event of the insolvency of the institution;

the instruments are neither secured nor subject to a guarantee that enhances the seniority of the claims by any of the following:

the instruments are not subject to any arrangement, contractual or otherwise, that enhances the seniority of the claim under the instruments in insolvency or liquidation;

the instruments are perpetual and the provisions governing them include no incentive for the institution to redeem them;

where the instruments include one or more early redemption options including call options, the options are exercisable at the sole discretion of the issuer;

the instruments may be called, redeemed or repurchased only where the conditions laid down in Article 77 are met, and not before five years after the date of issuance except where the conditions laid down in Article 78(4) are met;

the provisions governing the instruments do not indicate explicitly or implicitly that the instruments would be called, redeemed or repurchased, as applicable, by the institution other than in the case of the insolvency or liquidation of the institution and the institution does not otherwise provide such an indication;

the institution does not indicate explicitly or implicitly that the competent authority would consent to a request to call, redeem or repurchase the instruments;

distributions under the instruments meet the following conditions:

the instruments do not contribute to a determination that the liabilities of an institution exceed its assets, where such a determination constitutes a test of insolvency under applicable national law;

the provisions governing the instruments require that, upon the occurrence of a trigger event, the principal amount of the instruments be written down on a permanent or temporary basis or the instruments be converted to Common Equity Tier 1 instruments;

the provisions governing the instruments include no feature that could hinder the recapitalisation of the institution;

where the issuer is established in a third country and has been designated in accordance with Article 12 of Directive 2014/59/EU as part of a resolution group the resolution entity of which is established in the Union or where the issuer is established in a Member State, the law or contractual provisions governing the instruments require that, upon a decision by the resolution authority to exercise the write-down and conversion powers referred to in Article 59 of that Directive, the principal amount of the instruments is to be written down on a permanent basis or the instruments are to be converted to Common Equity Tier 1 instruments;

where the issuer is established in a third country and has not been designated in accordance with Article 12 of Directive 2014/59/EU as part of a resolution group the resolution entity of which is established in the Union, the law or contractual provisions governing the instruments require that, upon a decision by the relevant third-country authority, the principal amount of the instruments is to be written down on a permanent basis or the instruments are to be converted into Common Equity Tier 1 instruments;

where the issuer is established in a third country and has been designated in accordance with Article 12 of Directive 2014/59/EU as part of a resolution group the resolution entity of which is established in the Union or where the issuer is established in a Member State, the instruments may only be issued under, or be otherwise subject to the laws of a third country where, under those laws, the exercise of the write-down and conversion powers referred to in Article 59 of that Directive is effective and enforceable on the basis of statutory provisions or legally enforceable contractual provisions that recognise resolution or other write-down or conversion actions;

the instruments are not subject to set-off or netting arrangements that would undermine their capacity to absorb losses.

the form and nature of incentives to redeem;

the nature of any write up of the principal amount of an Additional Tier 1 instrument following a write down of its principal amount on a temporary basis;

the procedures and timing for the following:

features of instruments that could hinder the recapitalisation of the institution;

the use of special purpose entities for indirect issuance of own funds instruments.

a trigger event occurs when the Common Equity Tier 1 capital ratio of the institution referred to in point (a) of Article 92(1) falls below either of the following:

institutions may specify in the provisions governing the instrument one or more trigger events in addition to that referred to in point (a);

where the provisions governing the instruments require them to be converted into Common Equity Tier 1 instruments upon the occurrence of a trigger event, those provisions shall specify either of the following:

where the provisions governing the instruments require their principal amount to be written down upon the occurrence of a trigger event, the write down shall reduce all the following:

where the Additional Tier 1 instruments have been issued by a subsidiary undertaking established in a third country, the 5,125 % or higher trigger referred to in point (a) shall be calculated in accordance with the national law of that third country or contractual provisions governing the instruments, provided that the competent authority, after consulting EBA, is satisfied that those provisions are at least equivalent to the requirements set out in this Article.

the amount required to restore fully the Common Equity Tier 1 ratio of the institution to 5,125 %;

the full principal amount of the instrument.

immediately inform the competent authorities;

inform the holders of the Additional Tier 1 instruments;

write down the principal amount of the instruments, or convert the instruments into Common Equity Tier 1 instruments without delay, but no later than within one month, in accordance with the requirement laid down in this Article.

the aggregate amount by which the direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1 and Tier 2 instruments of financial sector entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment exceeds 10 % of the Common Equity Tier 1 items of the institution calculated after applying the following:

the amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Additional Tier 1 instruments of those financial sector entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment divided by the aggregate amount of all direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1 and Tier 2 instruments of those financial sector entities.

the amount of holdings required to be deducted pursuant to paragraph 1;

the proportion of the aggregate amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Additional Tier 1 instruments of financial sector entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment represented by each Additional Tier 1 instrument held.

the amount of holdings required to be risk weighted pursuant to paragraph 4;

the proportion resulting from the calculation in point (b) of paragraph 3.

the carrying amount of the instruments on the first day of the final five-year period of their contractual maturity divided by the number of days in that period;

the number of remaining days of contractual maturity of the instruments.

the aggregate amount by which the direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1 and Tier 2 instruments of financial sector entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment exceeds 10 % of the Common Equity Tier 1 items of the institution calculated after applying the following:

the amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Tier 2 instruments of financial sector entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment divided by the aggregate amount of all direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1 and Tier 2 instruments of those financial sector entities.

the total amount of holdings required to be deducted pursuant to paragraph 1;

the proportion of the aggregate amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Tier 2 instruments of financial sector entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment represented by each Tier 2 instrument held.

the amount of holdings required to be risk weighted pursuant to paragraph 4;

the proportion resulting from the calculation in point (b) of paragraph 3.

eligible liabilities instruments where the conditions set out in Article 72b are met, to the extent that they do not qualify as Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1 or Tier 2 items;

Tier 2 instruments with a residual maturity of at least one year, to the extent that they do not qualify as Tier 2 items in accordance with Article 64.

covered deposits;

sight deposits and short term deposits with an original maturity of less than one year;

the part of eligible deposits from natural persons and micro, small and medium-sized enterprises which exceeds the coverage level referred to in Article 6 of Directive 2014/49/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council ( 19 );

deposits that would be eligible deposits from natural persons, micro, small and medium–sized enterprises if they were not made through branches located outside the Union of institutions established in the Union;

secured liabilities, including covered bonds and liabilities in the form of financial instruments used for hedging purposes that form an integral part of the cover pool and that in accordance with national law are secured in a manner similar to covered bonds, provided that all secured assets relating to a covered bond cover pool remain unaffected, segregated and with enough funding and excluding any part of a secured liability or a liability for which collateral has been pledged that exceeds the value of the assets, pledge, lien or collateral against which it is secured;

any liability that arises by virtue of the holding of client assets or client money including client assets or client money held on behalf of collective investment undertakings, provided that such a client is protected under the applicable insolvency law;

any liability that arises by virtue of a fiduciary relationship between the resolution entity or any of its subsidiaries (as fiduciary) and another person (as beneficiary), provided that such a beneficiary is protected under the applicable insolvency or civil law;

liabilities to institutions, excluding liabilities to entities that are part of the same group, with an original maturity of less than seven days;

liabilities with a remaining maturity of less than seven days, owed to:

a liability to any of the following:

liabilities arising from derivatives;

liabilities arising from debt instruments with embedded derivatives.

the liabilities are directly issued or raised, as applicable, by an institution and are fully paid up;

the liabilities are not owned by any of the following:

the acquisition of ownership of the liabilities is not funded directly or indirectly by the resolution entity;

the claim on the principal amount of the liabilities under the provisions governing the instruments is wholly subordinated to claims arising from the excluded liabilities referred to in Article 72a(2); that subordination requirement shall be considered to be met in any of the following situations:

the liabilities are neither secured, nor subject to a guarantee or any other arrangement that enhances the seniority of the claim by any of the following:

the liabilities are not subject to set-off or netting arrangements that would undermine their capacity to absorb losses in resolution;

the provisions governing the liabilities do not include any incentive for their principal amount to be called, redeemed or repurchased prior to their maturity or repaid early by the institution, as applicable, except in the cases referred to in Article 72c(3);

the liabilities are not redeemable by the holders of the instruments prior to their maturity, except in the cases referred to in Article 72c(2);

subject to Article 72c(3) and (4), where the liabilities include one or more early repayment options, including call options, the options are exercisable at the sole discretion of the issuer, except in the cases referred to in Article 72c(2);

the liabilities may only be called, redeemed, repaid or repurchased early where the conditions set out in Articles 77 and 78a are met;

the provisions governing the liabilities do not indicate explicitly or implicitly that the liabilities would be called, redeemed, repaid or repurchased early, as applicable by the resolution entity other than in the case of the insolvency or liquidation of the institution and the institution does not otherwise provide such an indication;

the provisions governing the liabilities do not give the holder the right to accelerate the future scheduled payment of interest or principal, other than in the case of the insolvency or liquidation of the resolution entity;

the level of interest or dividend payments, as applicable, due on the liabilities is not amended on the basis of the credit standing of the resolution entity or its parent undertaking;

for instruments issued after 28 June 2021 the relevant contractual documentation and, where applicable, the prospectus related to the issuance explicitly refer to the possible exercise of the write-down and conversion powers in accordance with Article 48 of Directive 2014/59/EU.

all the conditions set out in paragraph 2 except for the condition set out in point (d) of the first subparagraph of paragraph 2 are met;

the liabilities rank pari passu with the lowest ranking excluded liabilities referred to in Article 72a(2) with the exception of the excluded liabilities that are subordinated to ordinary unsecured claims under national insolvency law referred to in the third subparagraph of paragraph 2 of this Article; and

the inclusion of those liabilities in eligible liabilities items would not give rise to a material risk of a successful legal challenge or of valid compensation claims as assessed by the resolution authority in relation to the principles referred to in point (g) of Article 34(1) and Article 75 of Directive 2014/59/EU.

the institution is not permitted to include in eligible liabilities items liabilities referred to in paragraph 3;

all the conditions set out in paragraph 2, except for the condition set out in point (d) of the first subparagraph of paragraph 2, are met;

the liabilities rank pari passu or are senior to the lowest ranking excluded liabilities referred to in Article 72a(2), with the exception of the excluded liabilities subordinated to ordinary unsecured claims under national insolvency law referred to in the third subparagraph of paragraph 2 of this Article;

on the balance sheet of the institution, the amount of the excluded liabilities referred to in Article 72a(2) which rank pari passu or below those liabilities in insolvency does not exceed 5 % of the amount of the own funds and eligible liabilities of the institution;

the inclusion of those liabilities in eligible liabilities items would not give rise to a material risk of a successful legal challenge or of valid compensation claims as assessed by the resolution authority in relation to the principles referred to in point (g) of Article 34(1) and Article 75 of Directive 2014/59/EU.

the applicable forms and nature of indirect funding of eligible liabilities instruments;

the form and nature of incentives to redeem for the purposes of the condition set out in point (g) of the first subparagraph of paragraph 2 of this Article and Article 72c(3).

direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of own eligible liabilities instruments, including own liabilities that that institution could be obliged to purchase as a result of existing contractual obligations;

direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of eligible liabilities instruments of G-SII entities with which the institution has reciprocal cross holdings that the competent authority considers to have been designed to artificially inflate the loss absorption and recapitalisation capacity of the resolution entity;

the applicable amount determined in accordance with Article 72i of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings of eligible liabilities instruments of G-SII entities, where the institution does not have a significant investment in those entities;

direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of eligible liabilities instruments of G-SII entities, where the institution has a significant investment in those entities, excluding underwriting positions held for five business days or fewer.

the aggregate amount by which the direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1, Tier 2 instruments of financial sector entities and eligible liabilities instruments of G-SII entities in none of which the institution has a significant investment exceeds 10 % of the Common Equity Tier 1 items of the institution after applying the following:

the amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the eligible liabilities instruments of G-SII entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment divided by the aggregate amount of the direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1, Tier 2 instruments of financial sector entities and eligible liabilities instruments of G-SII entities in none of which the resolution entity has a significant investment.

the amount of holdings required to be deducted pursuant to paragraph 1;

the proportion of the aggregate amount of direct, indirect and synthetic holdings by the institution of the eligible liabilities instruments of G-SII entities in which the institution does not have a significant investment represented by each eligible liabilities instrument held by the institution.

the holdings are in the trading book;

the eligible liabilities instruments are held for no longer than 30 business days.

the ability of the institution to cancel payments under the instrument would not be adversely affected by the discretion referred to in paragraph 1, or by the form in which distributions could be made;

the ability of the capital instrument or of the liability to absorb losses would not be adversely affected by the discretion referred to in paragraph 1, or by the form in which distributions could be made;

the quality of the capital instrument or liability would not otherwise be reduced by the discretion referred to in paragraph 1, or by the form in which distributions could be made.

the institution considers movements in that broad market index not to be significantly correlated to the credit standing of the institution, its parent institution or parent financial holding company or parent mixed financial holding company or parent mixed activity holding company;

the competent authority has not reached a different determination from that referred to in point (a).

either both the long position being hedged and the short position in an index used to hedge that long position are held in the trading book or both are held in the non-trading book;

the positions referred to in point (a) are held at fair value on the balance sheet of the institution;

the short position referred to in point (a) qualifies as an effective hedge under the internal control processes of the institution;

the competent authorities assess the adequacy of the internal control processes referred to in point (c) on at least an annual basis and are satisfied with their continuing appropriateness.

own Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1, Tier 2 and eligible liabilities instruments included in indices;

Common Equity Tier 1, Additional Tier 1 and Tier 2 instruments of financial sector entities, included in indices;

eligible liabilities instruments of institutions, included in indices.

when an estimate used as an alternative to the calculation of underlying exposure referred to in paragraph 2 is sufficiently conservative;

the meaning of operationally burdensome for the purposes of paragraph 3.

reduce, redeem or repurchase Common Equity Tier 1 instruments issued by the institution in a manner that is permitted under applicable national law;

reduce, distribute or reclassify as another own funds item the share premium accounts related to own funds instruments;

effect the call, redemption, repayment or repurchase of Additional Tier 1 or Tier 2 instruments prior to the date of their contractual maturity.

before or at the same time as any of the actions referred to in Article 77(1), the institution replaces the instruments or the related share premium accounts referred to in Article 77(1) with own funds instruments of equal or higher quality at terms that are sustainable for the income capacity of the institution;

the institution has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the competent authority that the own funds and eligible liabilities of the institution would, following the action referred to in Article 77(1) of this Regulation, exceed the requirements laid down in this Regulation and in Directives 2013/36/EU and 2014/59/EU by a margin that the competent authority considers necessary.

there is a change in the regulatory classification of those instruments that would be likely to result in their exclusion from own funds or reclassification as own funds of lower quality, and both the following conditions are met:

there is a change in the applicable tax treatment of those instruments which the institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the competent authority is material and was not reasonably foreseeable at the time of their issuance;

the instruments and related share premium accounts are grandfathered under Article 494b;

before or at the same time as the action referred to in Article 77(1), the institution replaces the instruments or related share premium accounts referred to in Article 77(1) with own funds instruments of equal or higher quality at terms that are sustainable for the income capacity of the institution and the competent authority has permitted that action on the basis of the determination that it would be beneficial from a prudential point of view and justified by exceptional circumstances;

the Additional Tier 1 or Tier 2 instruments are repurchased for market making purposes.

the meaning of ‘sustainable for the income capacity of the institution’;

the appropriate bases of limitation of redemption referred to in paragraph 3;

the process including the limits and procedures for granting approval in advance by competent authorities for an action listed in Article 77(1), and data requirements for an application by an institution for the permission of the competent authority to carry out an action listed therein, including the process to be applied in the case of redemption of shares issued to members of cooperative societies, and the time period for processing such an application.

before or at the same time as any of the actions referred to in Article 77(2), the institution replaces the eligible liabilities instruments with own funds or eligible liabilities instruments of equal or higher quality at terms that are sustainable for the income capacity of the institution;

the institution has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the resolution authority that the own funds and eligible liabilities of the institution would, following the action referred to in Article 77(2) of this Regulation, exceed the requirements for own funds and eligible liabilities laid down in this Regulation and in Directives 2013/36/EU and 2014/59/EU by a margin that the resolution authority, in agreement with the competent authority, considers necessary;

the institution has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the resolution authority that the partial or full replacement of the eligible liabilities with own funds instruments is necessary to ensure compliance with the own funds requirements laid down in this Regulation and in Directive 2013/36/EU for continuing authorisation.

the process of cooperation between the competent authority and the resolution authority;

the procedure, including the time limits and information requirements, for granting the permission in accordance with the first subparagraph of paragraph 1;

the procedure, including the time limits and information requirements, for granting the general prior permission in accordance with the second subparagraph of paragraph 1;

the meaning of ‘sustainable for the income capacity of the institution’.

a detailed explanation of the nature and extent of the shortfall identified;

technical advice on the action by the Commission that EBA considers to be necessary;

significant developments in the methodology of EBA for stress testing the solvency of institutions.

relevant developments in market standards or practice;

changes in relevant legal or accounting standards;

significant developments in the methodology of EBA for stress testing the solvency of institutions.

the subsidiary is one of the following:

the subsidiary is included fully in the consolidation pursuant to Chapter 2 of Title II of Part One;

the Common Equity Tier 1 items, referred to in the introductory part of this paragraph, are owned by persons other than the undertakings included in the consolidation pursuant to Chapter 2 of Title II of Part One.

the special purpose entity issuing those instruments is included fully in the consolidation pursuant to Chapter 2 of Title II of Part One;

the instruments, and the related share premium accounts, are included in qualifying Additional Tier 1 capital only where the conditions laid down in Article 52(1) are satisfied;

the instruments, and the related share premium accounts, are included in qualifying Tier 2 capital only where the conditions laid down in Article 63 are satisfied;

the only asset of the special purpose entity is its investment in the own funds of the parent undertaking or a subsidiary thereof that is included fully in the consolidation pursuant to Chapter 2 of Title II of Part One, the form of which satisfies the relevant conditions laid down in Articles 52(1) or 63, as applicable.

the Common Equity Tier 1 capital of the subsidiary minus the lower of the following:

the minority interests of the subsidiary expressed as a percentage of all Common Equity Tier 1 items of that undertaking.

its principal activity is to acquire holdings;

it is subject to prudential supervision on a consolidated basis;

it consolidates a subsidiary institution in which it has only a minority holding by virtue of the control relationship defined in Article 1 of Directive 83/349/EEC;

more than 90 % of the consolidated required Common Equity Tier 1 capital arises from the subsidiary institution referred to in point c) calculated on a sub-consolidated basis.

the Tier 1 capital of the subsidiary minus the lower of the following:

the qualifying Tier 1 capital of the subsidiary expressed as a percentage of all Common Equity Tier 1 and Additional Tier 1 items of that undertaking.

the own funds of the subsidiary minus the lower of the following:

the qualifying own funds of the undertaking, expressed as a percentage of the sum of all the Common Equity Tier 1 items, Additional Tier 1 items and Tier 2 items, excluding the amounts referred to in points (c) and (d) of Article 62, of that undertaking.

a financial sector entity;

an undertaking, that is not a financial sector entity, carrying on activities which the competent authority considers to be any of the following:

for the purpose of calculating the capital requirement in accordance with Part Three, institutions shall apply a risk weight of 1 250  % to the greater of the following:

the competent authorities shall prohibit institutions from having qualifying holdings referred to in paragraphs 1 and 2 the amount of which exceeds the percentages of eligible capital laid down in those paragraphs.

activities that are a direct extension of banking;

activities ancillary to banking;

similar activities.

those shares are held temporarily during a financial assistance operation as referred to in Article 79;

the holding of those shares is an underwriting position held for five working days or fewer;

those shares are held in the own name of the institution and on behalf of others.

a Common Equity Tier 1 capital ratio of 4,5 %;

a Tier 1 capital ratio of 6 %;

a total capital ratio of 8 %;

a leverage ratio of 3 %.

the Common Equity Tier 1 capital ratio is the Common Equity Tier 1 capital of the institution expressed as a percentage of the total risk exposure amount;

the Tier 1 capital ratio is the Tier 1 capital of the institution expressed as a percentage of the total risk exposure amount;

the total capital ratio is the own funds of the institution expressed as a percentage of the total risk exposure amount.

the risk-weighted exposure amounts for credit risk and dilution risk, calculated in accordance with Title II and Article 379, in respect of all the business activities of an institution, excluding risk-weighted exposure amounts from the trading book business of the institution;

the own funds requirements for the trading-book business of an institution for the following:

the own funds requirements for market risk as determined in Title IV of this Part, excluding the approaches set out in Chapters 1a and 1b of that Title, for all business activities that are subject to foreign exchange risk or commodity risk;

the own funds requirements calculated in accordance with Title V of this Part, with the exception of Article 379 for settlement risk;

the own funds requirements calculated in accordance with Title VI for credit valuation adjustment risk of OTC derivative instruments other than credit derivatives recognised to reduce risk-weighted exposure amounts for credit risk;

the own funds requirements determined in accordance with Title III for operational risk;

the risk-weighted exposure amounts determined in accordance with Title II for counterparty risk arising from the trading book business of the institution for the following types of transactions and agreements:

the own funds requirements referred to in points (c), (d) and (e) of that paragraph shall include those arising from all the business activities of an institution;

institutions shall multiply the own funds requirements set out in points (b) to (e) of that paragraph by 12,5.

a risk-based ratio of 18 %, representing the own funds and eligible liabilities of the institution expressed as a percentage of the total risk exposure amount calculated in accordance with Article 92(3) and (4);

a non-risk-based ratio of 6,75 %, representing the own funds and eligible liabilities of the institution expressed as a percentage of the total exposure measure referred to in Article 429(4).

within the three years following the date on which the institution or the group of which the institution is part has been identified as a G-SII;

within the two years following the date on which the resolution authority has applied the bail-in tool in accordance with Directive 2014/59/EU;

within the two years following the date on which the resolution entity has put in place an alternative private sector measure referred to in point (b) of Article 32(1) of Directive 2014/59/EU by which capital instruments and other liabilities have been written down or converted into Common Equity Tier 1 items in order to recapitalise the resolution entity without the application of resolution tools.

in the event of normal insolvency proceedings as defined in point (47) of Article 2(1) of Directive 2014/59/EU, the claim resulting from the liability ranks below claims resulting from liabilities that do not fulfil the conditions set out in paragraph 2 of this Article and that do not qualify as own funds;

it is subject to the write-down or conversion powers in accordance with Articles 59 to 62 of Directive 2014/59/EU.

5 % of the institution's total assets;

EUR 50 million.

for the contracts listed in point 1 of Annex II, contracts relating to equities which are referred to in point 3 of that Annex and credit derivatives, institutions may exempt those positions from the own funds requirement referred to in point (b) of Article 92(3);

for trading book positions other than those referred to in point (a) of this paragraph, institutions may replace the own funds requirement referred to in point (b) of Article 92(3) with the requirement calculated in accordance with point (a) of Article 92(3).

all the positions assigned to the trading book in accordance with Article 104 shall be included in the calculation except for the following:

all positions included in the calculation in accordance with point (a) shall be valued at their market value on that given date; where the market value of a position is not available on a given date, institutions shall take a fair value for the position on that date; where the market value and fair value of a position are not available on a given date, institutions shall take the most recent of the market value or fair value for that position;

the absolute value of long positions shall be summed with the absolute value of short positions.

the institution does not meet the conditions set out in point (a) or (b) of paragraph 1 for three consecutive months;

the institution does not meet the conditions set out in point (a) or (b) of paragraph 1 during more than 6 out of the last 12 months.

the sum of the items referred to in points (a) to (d) and (f) of Article 92(3) after applying Article 92(4);

12,5 multiplied by the amount specified in Article 97.

investment firms that deal on own account only for the purpose of fulfilling or executing a client order or for the purpose of gaining entrance to a clearing and settlement system or a recognised exchange when acting in an agency capacity or executing a client order;

investment firms that meet all the following conditions:

points (a) to (d) and (f) of Article 92(3) after applying Article 92(4);

the amount referred to in Article 97 multiplied by 12,5.

the calculation of the requirement to hold eligible capital of at least one quarter of the fixed overheads of the previous year;

the conditions for the adjustment by the competent authority of the requirement to hold eligible capital of at least one quarter of the fixed overheads of the previous year;

the calculation of projected fixed overheads in the case of an investment firm that has not completed business for one year.

using the calculation of total risk exposure amount specified in Article 95(2);

own funds calculated on the basis of the consolidated situation of the parent investment firm or that of the financial holding company or mixed financial holding company, as applicable.

it shall use the calculation of total risk exposure amount specified in Article 96(2);

it shall use own funds calculated on the basis of the consolidated situation of the parent investment firm or that of the financial holding company or mixed financial holding company, as applicable, and in compliance with Chapter 2 of Title II of Part One.

the activities which the institution considers to be trading business and as constituting part of the trading book for own funds requirement purposes;

the extent to which a position can be marked-to-market daily by reference to an active, liquid two-way market;

for positions that are marked-to-model, the extent to which the institution can:

the extent to which the institution can, and is required to, generate valuations for the position that can be validated externally in a consistent manner;

the extent to which legal restrictions or other operational requirements would impede the institution's ability to effect a liquidation or hedge of the position in the short term;

the extent to which the institution can, and is required to, actively manage the risks of positions within its trading operation;

the extent to which the institution may reclassify risk or positions between the non-trading and trading books and the requirements for such reclassifications as referred to in Article 104a.

the institution shall have in place a clearly documented trading strategy for the position or portfolios in the trading book, which shall be approved by senior management and include the expected holding period;

the institution shall have in place clearly defined policies and procedures for the active management of positions or portfolios in the trading book; those policies and procedures shall include the following:

the institution shall have in place clearly defined policies and procedures to monitor the positions against the institution's trading strategy, including the monitoring of turnover and positions for which the originally intended holding period has been exceeded.

each trading desk shall have a clear and distinctive business strategy and a risk management structure that is adequate for its business strategy;

each trading desk shall have a clear organisational structure; positions in a given trading desk shall be managed by designated dealers within the institution; each dealer shall have dedicated functions in the trading desk; each dealer shall be assigned to one trading desk only;

position limits shall be set within each trading desk according to the business strategy of that trading desk;

reports on the activities, profitability, risk management and regulatory requirements at the trading desk level shall be produced at least on a weekly basis and communicated to the management body on a regular basis;

each trading desk shall have a clear annual business plan including a well-defined remuneration policy on the basis of sound criteria used for performance measurement;

reports on maturing positions, intra-day trading limit breaches, daily trading limit breaches and actions taken by the institution to address those breaches, as well as assessments of market liquidity, shall be prepared for each trading desk on a monthly basis and made available to the competent authorities.